Substance Use Disorders — MCQs

Substance Use Disorders Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 121: Which of the following is FALSE regarding opiate withdrawal syndrome?

A. Characterized by body pain
B. Characterized by dilatation of pupils
C. Treated with naltrexone (Correct Answer)
D. Treated with methadone

Explanation: The correct answer is **C. Treated with naltrexone**. ### **Explanation** Opioid withdrawal syndrome occurs when a person dependent on opioids abruptly stops or reduces intake. It is characterized by autonomic hyperactivity and intense physical discomfort. * **Why Option C is False:** **Naltrexone** is a long-acting **opioid antagonist**. If administered during active withdrawal, it will displace any remaining opioids from the receptors and **precipitate/worsen** a severe withdrawal syndrome. Naltrexone is used for **relapse prevention** (maintenance) only after the patient has been detoxified and is opioid-free for 7–10 days. * **Why Option A is Correct:** Body aches, myalgia, and arthralgia are hallmark symptoms of opioid withdrawal, often described by patients as "pain in the bones." * **Why Option B is Correct:** Mydriasis (pupillary dilatation) is a classic sign of withdrawal (sympathetic overactivity), contrasting with the "pinpoint pupils" (miosis) seen in acute opioid intoxication. * **Why Option D is Correct:** **Methadone** (a long-acting agonist) and **Buprenorphine** (a partial agonist) are the gold-standard pharmacological treatments used to manage withdrawal symptoms by tapering the dose gradually. ### **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG** * **Clinical Features:** Rhinorrhea, lacrimation, yawning, piloerection ("cold turkey"), and diarrhea. * **Severity Assessment:** The **COWS (Clinical Opiate Withdrawal Scale)** is used to monitor symptoms. * **Non-Opioid Management:** **Clonidine** (alpha-2 agonist) can be used to treat autonomic symptoms like tachycardia and hypertension during withdrawal. * **Key Distinction:** Opioid withdrawal is extremely distressing but **rarely life-threatening**, unlike alcohol or benzodiazepine withdrawal, which can cause seizures and death.

Question 122: What are the drugs used in patients with substance abuse?

A. Naltrexone
B. Naloxone
C. Clonidine
D. All of the above (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ### Explanation The management of substance use disorders involves various pharmacological agents targeted at detoxification, maintenance, and relapse prevention. The correct answer is **"All of the above"** because each drug listed plays a specific role in treating opioid or alcohol dependence. **1. Naltrexone:** This is a long-acting **opioid antagonist**. It is primarily used for **relapse prevention** in both opioid and alcohol use disorders. By blocking mu-opioid receptors, it prevents the "high" associated with opioid use and reduces cravings in alcoholics by interfering with the reward pathway. **2. Naloxone:** A short-acting **opioid antagonist** used as the **drug of choice for acute opioid overdose**. It rapidly reverses respiratory depression. It is also combined with buprenorphine (as Suboxone) to prevent intravenous misuse of the medication. **3. Clonidine:** An **alpha-2 adrenergic agonist**. While it does not treat the addiction itself, it is highly effective in managing the **autonomic symptoms of opioid withdrawal** (e.g., hypertension, tachycardia, sweating, and restlessness). It reduces the sympathetic "storm" during detoxification. ### High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG: * **Alcohol Dependence:** First-line drugs include **Naltrexone** and **Acamprosate**. Disulfiram is used as aversion therapy (aldehyde dehydrogenase inhibitor). * **Opioid Overdose:** The classic triad is miosis (pinpoint pupils), respiratory depression, and altered sensorium. **Naloxone** is the immediate treatment. * **Opioid Substitution Therapy (OST):** **Methadone** (full agonist) and **Buprenorphine** (partial agonist) are used for long-term maintenance. * **Wernicke’s Encephalopathy:** Always give **Thiamine** before Glucose in alcoholics to prevent precipitating acute neurological deterioration.

Question 123: "Chasing the dragon" is a slang term used for the method of consuming which substance?

A. Cocaine
B. Heroin (Correct Answer)
C. LSD
D. Ketamine

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Heroin (Option B)** is the correct answer. "Chasing the dragon" refers to a specific method of inhaling heroin vapor. The user places the powdered heroin (typically the "Brown Sugar" or base form) on aluminum foil and heats it from below with a flame. As the drug melts and vaporizes, it moves along the foil; the user follows the moving smoke with a straw or tube to inhale it. The undulating movement of the smoke resembles the tail of a mythical dragon, hence the name. This method is preferred by some to avoid the risks associated with intravenous injection (like HIV or Hepatitis B/C). **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Cocaine (Option A):** While cocaine can be smoked (as "Crack"), the term used is typically "freebasing." Cocaine is more commonly associated with "snorting" (insufflation) or intravenous use. * **LSD (Option C):** LSD is a hallucinogen typically consumed orally via "blotter papers" or "tabs." It is not smoked or vaporized. * **Ketamine (Option D):** Known as "Special K," it is a dissociative anesthetic usually snorted as a powder or injected. It is not associated with the "chasing" technique. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Opioid Triad:** Pinpoint pupils (miosis), respiratory depression, and altered mental status (coma). * **Treatment of Acute Overdose:** Naloxone (Opioid antagonist). * **Withdrawal Symptoms:** Lacrimation, rhinorrhea, yawning, piloerection (gooseflesh), and dilated pupils (mydriasis). * **Substitution Therapy:** Methadone (long-acting agonist) or Buprenorphine (partial agonist).

Question 124: Tactile hallucinations are seen in which of the following?

A. Alcohol withdrawal
B. Heroin use
C. Cocaine intoxication (Correct Answer)
D. Phenargan use

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Cocaine intoxication** is the correct answer because it is classically associated with **tactile hallucinations**, specifically a phenomenon known as **Formication** (also called "Cocaine bugs" or Magnan’s sign). This is a sensory distortion where the patient feels as if insects are crawling under or on their skin, often leading to excoriations from constant scratching. Cocaine increases synaptic dopamine levels, and excessive dopaminergic activity in the mesolimbic pathway is linked to these psychotic symptoms. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Alcohol withdrawal:** While withdrawal can cause hallucinations, they are most commonly **visual** (e.g., seeing small animals) or auditory. While tactile hallucinations can occur in *Delirium Tremens*, they are not as pathognomonic as they are for cocaine. * **Heroin use:** Opioids typically cause euphoria, sedation, and respiratory depression. Hallucinations are not a standard feature of heroin intoxication. * **Phenargan (Promethazine) use:** This is an antihistamine with sedative properties. While anticholinergic toxicity (from very high doses) can cause hallucinations, it is not a primary or classic clinical feature of standard use. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Magnan’s Sign:** The specific term for the sensation of "cocaine bugs." * **Formication** is also seen in **Ekbom Syndrome** (Delusional Parasitosis) and severe alcohol withdrawal. * **Cocaine Mechanism:** Blocks the reuptake of Dopamine, Norepinephrine, and Serotonin. * **Physical Signs:** Look for mydriasis (dilated pupils), tachycardia, hypertension, and perforated nasal septum in chronic users. * **Treatment:** Benzodiazepines are the first-line treatment for cocaine-induced agitation and cardiovascular symptoms. Avoid beta-blockers due to the risk of unopposed alpha-adrenergic stimulation.

Question 125: A boy is experiencing diarrhea, rhinorrhea, sweating, and lacrimation. What is the most probable diagnosis?

A. Cocaine withdrawal
B. Heroin withdrawal (Correct Answer)
C. Alcohol withdrawal
D. LSD withdrawal

Explanation: **Explanation:** The clinical presentation of **rhinorrhea, lacrimation, diarrhea, and sweating** is a classic constellation of symptoms indicating **Opioid Withdrawal** (e.g., Heroin). **1. Why Heroin Withdrawal is Correct:** Opioids act on mu-receptors to slow down bodily functions (causing constipation, miosis, and dry secretions). When the drug is withdrawn, the body experiences a "rebound" hyperactivity of the autonomic nervous system. This leads to "leaky" symptoms: * **Eyes/Nose:** Lacrimation and rhinorrhea (highly specific signs). * **GI Tract:** Diarrhea and abdominal cramps. * **Skin:** Sweating (diaphoresis) and piloerection (goosebumps/“cold turkey”). * **Pupils:** Mydriasis (dilatation). **2. Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Cocaine Withdrawal:** Characterized by "the crash"—dysphoria, fatigue, increased appetite, and vivid dreams. It does not typically present with autonomic leakage like rhinorrhea. * **Alcohol Withdrawal:** Presents with tremors, tachycardia, hypertension, and in severe cases, seizures or Delirium Tremens. While sweating occurs, lacrimation and diarrhea are not hallmark features. * **LSD Withdrawal:** LSD does not produce a significant physical withdrawal syndrome; it primarily causes psychological dependence. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Objective Opiate Withdrawal Scale (OOWS):** Used to clinically assess the severity of these symptoms. * **Piloerection:** The medical term for "gooseflesh," a pathognomonic sign of opioid withdrawal. * **Treatment:** Clonidine (alpha-2 agonist) helps with autonomic symptoms; Methadone or Buprenorphine are used for long-term detoxification. * **Mnemonic:** Think of "Wet" symptoms (tears, snot, sweat, diarrhea) for Opioid withdrawal.

Question 126: Flashback phenomenon is associated with which of the following substances?

A. Flunitrazepam
B. Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) (Correct Answer)
C. Toluene
D. Anabolic androgenic steroids

Explanation: **Explanation:** The correct answer is **Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD)**. **1. Why LSD is correct:** Flashbacks, medically termed **Hallucinogen Persisting Perception Disorder (HPPD)**, are a classic complication of LSD use. A flashback is a spontaneous, transitory recurrence of the sensory distortions experienced during a previous "trip," occurring weeks or even months after the last dose. These are typically visual (e.g., geometric hallucinations, intensified colors, or macropsia/micropsia) and occur in a state of clear consciousness. The underlying mechanism is thought to involve neuroplastic changes in the 5-HT2A receptors in the visual cortex. **2. Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Flunitrazepam:** A potent benzodiazepine (often called the "date rape drug"). It typically causes sedation and anterograde amnesia, not flashbacks. * **Toluene:** An inhalant found in glues and paints. Chronic use leads to "Glue Sniffer’s Encephalopathy" and cerebellar ataxia, but it is not associated with the flashback phenomenon. * **Anabolic Androgenic Steroids:** These are associated with "Roid Rage" (increased aggression), mood swings, and physical changes (e.g., gynecomastia), but not hallucinatory flashbacks. **3. High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Mechanism of LSD:** Agonist at the **5-HT2A receptor**. * **Bad Trip:** Acute panic reaction or "horror trip" is the most common adverse effect; managed with reassurance ("talking down") and benzodiazepines. * **Physical Signs:** LSD causes marked **mydriasis** (dilated pupils), tachycardia, and tremors. * **Tolerance:** Develops very rapidly to the effects of LSD, but there is no physical dependence or withdrawal syndrome.

Question 127: Which of the following is NOT typically associated with alcohol withdrawal?

A. Seizures
B. Amnesia (Correct Answer)
C. Tremors
D. Delirium

Explanation: **Explanation:** Alcohol withdrawal occurs due to the sudden cessation of alcohol intake, which leads to **CNS hyperexcitability**. This happens because chronic alcohol consumption enhances GABA (inhibitory) activity and inhibits NMDA (excitatory) receptors; withdrawal reverses this, causing a surge in glutamate and a drop in GABA. **Why Amnesia is the Correct Answer:** Amnesia is not a feature of the acute withdrawal syndrome. While chronic alcohol use can lead to memory deficits (e.g., **Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome** due to Thiamine deficiency) or "blackouts" during acute intoxication, it is not a physiological symptom of the withdrawal process itself. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Tremors:** The most common and earliest sign of withdrawal (6–12 hours). Often called "the shakes," it involves a coarse intention tremor of the hands. * **Seizures:** Typically occur 12–48 hours after the last drink. These are usually generalized tonic-clonic seizures ("rum fits"). * **Delirium:** Specifically **Delirium Tremens (DT)**, the most severe form of withdrawal (48–96 hours). It is characterized by clouded consciousness, autonomic instability, and vivid hallucinations. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Timeline:** Tremors (6-12h) → Seizures (12-48h) → Hallucinosis (12-24h) → Delirium Tremens (48-96h). * **Alcoholic Hallucinosis:** Unlike DT, the patient has a **clear sensorium** (normal orientation) and stable vitals. * **Drug of Choice:** Benzodiazepines (e.g., Chlordiazepoxide, Diazepam). In patients with liver failure, use **LOT** (Lorazepam, Oxazepam, Temazepam). * **Delirium Tremens** is a medical emergency with a mortality rate of up to 5% if untreated.

Question 128: Angel dust is an example of which of the following classifications of drugs?

A. CNS stimulant
B. Hallucinogen (Correct Answer)
C. Date rape drug
D. CNS depressant

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Angel dust** is the street name for **Phencyclidine (PCP)**. It is classified as a **dissociative hallucinogen**. Originally developed as an intravenous anesthetic, its use was discontinued due to severe adverse effects. PCP acts primarily as an **NMDA receptor antagonist**, leading to a state of "dissociative anesthesia" where the patient feels detached from their environment and body. * **Why Option B is Correct:** While PCP has stimulant and depressant properties, it is classically categorized as a hallucinogen because it induces profound distortions in perception (sight and sound) and produces feelings of detachment. * **Why Option A is Incorrect:** While PCP can cause tachycardia and hypertension, it is not a pure CNS stimulant like Cocaine or Amphetamines. * **Why Option C is Incorrect:** Date rape drugs typically refer to sedative-hypnotics like Flunitrazepam (Rohypnol), GHB, or Ketamine (though Ketamine is chemically related to PCP, "Angel Dust" specifically refers to PCP). * **Why Option D is Incorrect:** Although PCP can cause CNS depression in massive overdoses, its clinical presentation is usually characterized by agitation and psychosis. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** 1. **Vertical Nystagmus:** This is the most characteristic physical sign of PCP intoxication (it can also be horizontal or rotary). 2. **Belligerence/Aggression:** Patients often present with extreme agitation, superhuman strength, and decreased pain perception, often requiring physical restraints. 3. **Treatment:** Management is primarily supportive. **Benzodiazepines** are the first-line treatment for agitation and seizures. Ammonium chloride was historically used for urinary acidification but is no longer recommended.

Question 129: All of the following are relatively normal in Korsakoff's psychosis except?

A. Implicit memory
B. Intelligence
C. Language
D. Learning (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Explanation:** Korsakoff’s psychosis (often following Wernicke’s encephalopathy) is a chronic amnestic syndrome caused by **Thiamine (Vitamin B1) deficiency**, typically due to chronic alcohol consumption. The hallmark of this condition is a profound impairment in the ability to form new memories (**Anterograde amnesia**). **Why "Learning" is the correct answer:** Learning is the process of acquiring new information or skills. In Korsakoff’s psychosis, the primary deficit is the inability to encode and consolidate new information into long-term memory. Therefore, the patient’s ability to **learn** new facts or events is severely impaired, making it the only "abnormal" function among the choices. **Why the other options are wrong:** * **Implicit memory (A):** Interestingly, while explicit (declarative) memory is lost, procedural or **implicit memory** (e.g., learning a motor task like riding a bike or solving a puzzle) is often **preserved**. * **Intelligence (B):** General intelligence (IQ), reasoning, and executive functions often remain **relatively intact** or within normal limits compared to the severe memory deficit. * **Language (C):** Basic linguistic abilities, including vocabulary, syntax, and speech production, are typically **preserved**. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** 1. **Triad of Wernicke’s:** Ataxia, Ophthalmoplegia (6th nerve palsy), and Global Confusion. 2. **Korsakoff’s Features:** Anterograde amnesia, Retrograde amnesia, and **Confabulation** (filling memory gaps with fabricated stories). 3. **Pathology:** Characterized by lesions/atrophy in the **mammillary bodies** and the dorsomedial nucleus of the thalamus. 4. **Treatment:** Always give Thiamine **before** Glucose to prevent precipitating Wernicke’s in a malnourished patient.

Question 130: Which of the following drugs is used worldwide for the maintenance therapy of opioid dependence?

A. Naltrexone
B. Methadone (Correct Answer)
C. Pethidine
D. L-NAME

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Methadone** is a long-acting synthetic **mu-opioid receptor full agonist**. It is considered the gold standard for **Opioid Substitution Therapy (OST)** or maintenance therapy worldwide. The pharmacological basis for its use is its long half-life (24–36 hours), which prevents withdrawal symptoms and reduces "craving" without producing the intense euphoria associated with short-acting opioids like heroin. This allows patients to achieve psychosocial stability. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Naltrexone:** This is an **opioid antagonist**. While used in relapse prevention, it is not "substitution" or "maintenance" therapy in the same context as Methadone. It requires the patient to be completely detoxified (opioid-free for 7–10 days) before initiation to avoid precipitating acute withdrawal. * **C. Pethidine:** A short-acting synthetic opioid. It is not used for maintenance due to its short duration of action and the risk of neurotoxicity (seizures) caused by its metabolite, **norpethidine**. * **D. L-NAME:** This is a non-specific inhibitor of Nitric Oxide Synthase (NOS). It is a research tool and has no clinical role in the management of opioid dependence. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Buprenorphine:** A **partial mu-agonist** and kappa-antagonist. It is also used for maintenance therapy and has a lower risk of overdose due to its "ceiling effect." * **Clonidine:** An alpha-2 agonist used to manage the **autonomic symptoms** of acute opioid withdrawal (tachycardia, hypertension, sweating), but it does not treat cravings. * **Drug of Choice for Opioid Overdose:** Intravenous **Naloxone** (short-acting antagonist). * **Lofexidine:** Recently approved non-opioid medication for managing withdrawal symptoms.

Practice by Chapter

Neurobiology of Addiction

Practice Questions

Alcohol Use Disorder

Practice Questions

Opioid Use Disorder

Practice Questions

Cannabis Use Disorder

Practice Questions

Stimulant Use Disorders

Practice Questions

Sedative, Hypnotic, and Anxiolytic Use Disorders

Practice Questions

Tobacco Use Disorder

Practice Questions

Hallucinogen-Related Disorders

Practice Questions

Substance Withdrawal Syndromes

Practice Questions

Pharmacotherapy for Substance Use Disorders

Practice Questions

Psychosocial Interventions

Practice Questions

Dual Diagnosis Management

Practice Questions

Want unlimited practice?

Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.

Start For Free