Opioid Use Disorder — MCQs

10 questions

A patient presents to the emergency department with vomiting, diarrhea, lacrimation, abdominal cramps, and piloerection. The family members report a history of substance use for the past month. The clinical presentation is due to what?

All of the following are actions produced by mu receptors of morphine except:-

A female was given morphine sulphate during labour for pain but she developed respiratory distress. Which of the following will be the correct antidote?

True about epidural opioid are all except:

Which of the following drugs is used in opioid maintenance therapy?

Which drug is commonly used for outpatient department (OPD) analgesia?

CAGE questionnaire is used in:

ADHD in childhood can lead to which of the following in the future?

A patient with bronchial asthma develops osteoporosis. Most likely mechanism?

Q10

Withdrawal from which of the following has led to symptoms of excessive yawning, lacrimation, hypertension, and tachycardia, along with dilated pupils in a patient?

Opioid Use Disorder Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1: A patient presents to the emergency department with vomiting, diarrhea, lacrimation, abdominal cramps, and piloerection. The family members report a history of substance use for the past month. The clinical presentation is due to what?

A. opioid withdrawal (Correct Answer)
B. cocaine intoxication
C. cocaine withdrawal
D. opioid intoxication

Explanation: ***Opioid withdrawal*** - The constellation of **vomiting, diarrhea, lacrimation, abdominal cramps, and piloerection** (gooseflesh) are classic signs and symptoms of **opioid withdrawal**. - These symptoms reflect a **hyperactive sympathetic nervous system** as the body attempts to compensate for the absence of exogenous opioids. *Cocaine intoxication* - Cocaine intoxication typically presents with **euphoria, hyperactivity, tachycardia, hypertension, and paranoia**, which are not seen here. - It is characterized by **sympathomimetic effects**, leading to an agitated and stimulated state, rather than the distress seen in withdrawal. *Cocaine withdrawal* - Cocaine withdrawal typically manifests as **dysphoria, fatigue, increased appetite, psychomotor retardation or agitation, and vivid unpleasant dreams**, not the GI and autonomic symptoms described. - The primary symptoms are psychological and energetic, often described as a "crash" rather than the physical distress of opioid withdrawal. *Opioid intoxication* - Opioid intoxication primarily causes **CNS depression**, including **respiratory depression, meiosis (pinpoint pupils), sedation, and constipation**. - The patient's symptoms of vomiting, diarrhea, and lacrimation are contrary to the effects of opioid intoxication.

Question 2: All of the following are actions produced by mu receptors of morphine except:-

A. Respiratory depression
B. Hyperalgesia (Correct Answer)
C. Miosis
D. Decreased GI motility

Explanation: ***Hyperalgesia***- **Hyperalgesia** is not a direct effect of **μ-opioid receptor activation**; in fact, μ-receptor activation causes **analgesia**.- While chronic opioid use can lead to **opioid-induced hyperalgesia**, this is a complex phenomenon involving adaptations to long-term exposure, not an acute action of the receptor itself.*Respiratory depression*- Activation of **μ-opioid receptors** in the **brainstem** leads to a dose-dependent decrease in respiratory rate and depth [1].- This effect is mediated by reduced sensitivity of respiratory centers to **CO2 levels**, making it a major concern in opioid overdose [1].*Miosis*- **Miosis** (pinpoint pupils) is a classic sign of **opioid intoxication** and results from excitatory actions of μ-opioid receptor activation on the **Edinger-Westphal nucleus** of the oculomotor nerve [1, 3].- This effect is mediated through inhibition of **GABAergic neurons**, leading to increased parasympathetic outflow to the iris sphincter.*Decreased GI motility*- Activation of **μ-opioid receptors** in the **gastrointestinal tract** reduces peristalsis, increases water reabsorption, and decreases secretions [1, 2].- This leads to **constipation**, a very common and persistent side effect of opioid use [1, 2].

Question 3: A female was given morphine sulphate during labour for pain but she developed respiratory distress. Which of the following will be the correct antidote?

A. Naloxone (Correct Answer)
B. Epinephrine
C. Pralidoxime
D. Atropine

Explanation: ***Naloxone*** - **Naloxone** is a pure opioid antagonist that rapidly reverses the effects of **opioid overdose** [1, 3], including **respiratory depression** [2], by competitively binding to opioid receptors [1]. - Its short half-life may necessitate repeated doses, especially with longer-acting opioids like morphine, to prevent recurrence of respiratory depression [1]. *Epinephrine* - **Epinephrine** is an adrenergic agonist used to treat **anaphylaxis** and severe allergic reactions, as it causes **vasoconstriction** and **bronchodilation**. - It is not an antidote for opioid-induced respiratory depression, which primarily results from central nervous system effects rather than allergic reactions. *Pralidoxime* - **Pralidoxime** is a **cholinesterase reactivator** used to treat poisoning by **organophosphates**, which inhibit acetylcholinesterase, leading to cholinergic crisis. - It works by restoring the function of the enzyme, thereby breaking down excess acetylcholine, and is not indicated for opioid overdose. *Atropine* - **Atropine** is an **anticholinergic agent** that blocks muscarinic acetylcholine receptors, used to treat **bradycardia** and **organophosphate poisoning**. - It would not reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression, as it primarily affects the parasympathetic nervous system and does not antagonize opioid receptor effects.

Question 4: True about epidural opioid are all except:

A. Act on dorsal horn substantia gelatinosa
B. Can cause Itching
C. Can cause respiratory depression
D. Function of the intestine is not affected (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Function of the intestine is not affected** - **Epidural opioids** can indeed cause **constipation** and other gastrointestinal side effects by affecting opioid receptors in the **gut wall**, thus disturbing normal intestinal motility. - The phrase "not affected" is incorrect because **opioids inherently reduce gastrointestinal motility**, leading to common side effects such as nausea, vomiting, and constipation. *Act on dorsal horn substantia gelatinosa* - This statement is true; **epidural opioids work primarily by binding to opioid receptors** in the **substantia gelatinosa** of the dorsal horn of the spinal cord. - This binding **inhibits the release of neurotransmitters** like substance P, thus preventing the transmission of pain signals. *Can cause Itching* - **Pruritus (itching)** is a very common side effect of **epidural opioids**, often concentrated around the face and trunk. - It results from the **activation of opioid receptors** in the central nervous system and the release of histamine. *Can cause respiratory depression* - **Respiratory depression** is a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of **epidural opioids**, particularly with higher doses or systemic absorption. - It occurs due to the **suppression of the medullary respiratory centers** in the brainstem.

Question 5: Which of the following drugs is used in opioid maintenance therapy?

A. Naltrexone
B. Clonidine
C. Buprenorphine (Correct Answer)
D. Disulfiram
E. Naloxone

Explanation: ***Buprenorphine*** - **Buprenorphine** is a **partial opioid agonist** used in opioid maintenance therapy to reduce cravings and withdrawal symptoms without producing the full euphoric effects of other opioids. - It is often combined with **naloxone** (as Suboxone) to prevent misuse by injection, as naloxone is only active if injected. - Buprenorphine has a **ceiling effect** for respiratory depression, making it safer than full agonists like methadone. *Naltrexone* - **Naltrexone** is an **opioid antagonist** that blocks opioid receptors, preventing the euphoric effects of opioids and reducing cravings. - While used in opioid use disorder treatment, it is primarily for relapse prevention and not typically for the active maintenance phase where agonist effects are desired. *Clonidine* - **Clonidine** is an **alpha-2 adrenergic agonist** primarily used to manage the **autonomic symptoms of opioid withdrawal**, such as anxiety, sweating, and rapid heart rate. - It does not directly act on opioid receptors and is not a primary agent for long-term opioid maintenance therapy. *Disulfiram* - **Disulfiram** is a drug used in the treatment of **alcohol use disorder**, not opioid use disorder. - It works by inhibiting acetaldehyde dehydrogenase, leading to an unpleasant reaction when alcohol is consumed. *Naloxone* - **Naloxone** is an **opioid antagonist** used for **emergency reversal of opioid overdose**, not for maintenance therapy. - It rapidly displaces opioids from receptors and reverses respiratory depression. - While combined with buprenorphine in Suboxone to prevent misuse, naloxone itself is not used for maintenance therapy.

Question 6: Which drug is commonly used for outpatient department (OPD) analgesia?

A. Diclofenac
B. Ibuprofen
C. Paracetamol (Correct Answer)
D. Tramadol

Explanation: ***Paracetamol*** - It is a widely used and generally **safe analgesic** and antipyretic often prescribed for mild to moderate pain in an outpatient setting. - Its favorable side effect profile and availability as an **over-the-counter (OTC)** medication make it a first-choice drug for many common pain conditions. *Diclofenac* - While it is an effective NSAID used for pain and inflammation, its use can be associated with **gastrointestinal side effects** like ulcers and bleeding, as well as cardiovascular risks. - It is often reserved for more significant inflammatory pain or when other analgesics are insufficient, and may require more careful monitoring in an outpatient setting. *Ibuprofen* - Similar to diclofenac, Ibuprofen is an **NSAID** which is effective for pain and inflammation. However, it also carries risks of **gastrointestinal irritation** and renal side effects, especially with prolonged use or in certain patient populations. - While available OTC, its use for routine outpatient analgesia may be less preferred than paracetamol in some cases due to its GI and renal side effect profile. *Tramadol* - Tramadol is a **central acting opioid analgesic** with a higher potential for side effects such as nausea, dizziness, constipation, and the risk of dependence or abuse. - It is typically reserved for moderate to severe pain that is not adequately managed by non-opioid analgesics, and its prescription often involves more stringent monitoring than paracetamol.

Question 7: CAGE questionnaire is used in:

A. Opiate poisoning
B. Alcohol dependence (Correct Answer)
C. Dhatura poisoning
D. Barbiturate poisoning

Explanation: ***Alcohol dependence*** - The **CAGE questionnaire** is a widely used screening tool for identifying potential **alcohol problems** and dependence. - The acronym CAGE stands for Cutting down, Annoyance by criticism, Guilty feelings, and Eye-openers, all related to drinking habits. *Opiate poisoning* - Screening for opiate use or poisoning typically involves asking about **drug use history**, conducting **urine drug screens**, and observing specific clinical signs like **pinpoint pupils** and **respiratory depression**. - The CAGE questionnaire is not designed to screen for opiate use. *Dhatura poisoning* - **Dhatura poisoning** is characterized by anticholinergic symptoms like **dilated pupils**, **dry mouth**, **tachycardia**, and **delirium**. - Diagnosis relies on clinical presentation and a history of exposure, not a specific questionnaire like CAGE. *Barbiturate poisoning* - **Barbiturate poisoning** presents with central nervous system depression, including **sedation**, **respiratory depression**, and **hypotension**. - Diagnosis involves a clinical assessment, history of barbiturate use, and toxicology screens, not the CAGE questionnaire.

Question 8: ADHD in childhood can lead to which of the following in the future?

A. Intellectual changes
B. Alcoholism
C. Antisocial behaviour
D. All of the options (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***All of the options*** - Childhood ADHD is associated with an increased risk of developing various long-term negative outcomes, including **substance use disorders** (like alcoholism), **antisocial behaviors**, and impacts on **academic and occupational functioning** which can be broadly termed intellectual or cognitive impacts. - The inattentiveness, impulsivity, and hyperactivity characteristic of ADHD can disrupt normal development, leading to difficulties in social interactions, educational attainment, and emotional regulation, all contributing to these wider issues. *Intellectual changes* - While ADHD does not directly cause an intellectual disability, it can significantly impact **academic performance**, executive function, and the ability to apply learned knowledge, leading to what might be perceived as intellectual challenges or underachievement. - Difficulties with sustained attention, organization, and impulse control can hinder learning processes and the acquisition of new skills, influencing cognitive development and application. *Alcoholism* - Individuals with ADHD, particularly those with untreated or poorly managed symptoms, have a significantly **higher risk of developing substance use disorders**, including alcoholism. - The impulsive nature and difficulty with self-regulation often seen in ADHD can contribute to engaging in risky behaviors, including substance experimentation and dependence, as a form of self-medication or coping mechanism. *Antisocial behaviour* - ADHD, especially when comorbid with **oppositional defiant disorder (ODD)** or **conduct disorder (CD)**, is a significant risk factor for the development of antisocial behaviors and later antisocial personality disorder. - Impulsivity, poor emotional regulation, and difficulties understanding consequences can predispose individuals with ADHD to violate social norms and engage in aggressive or non-compliant actions.

Question 9: A patient with bronchial asthma develops osteoporosis. Most likely mechanism?

A. Calcium malabsorption
B. Inflammatory mediators
C. Physical inactivity
D. Chronic steroid use (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Chronic steroid use*** - **Glucocorticoids**, commonly used in the treatment of bronchial asthma, can directly inhibit **osteoblast activity** and promote **osteoclast activity**, leading to bone loss [1]. - They also reduce intestinal **calcium absorption** and increase **renal calcium excretion**, further disrupting calcium homeostasis and contributing to osteoporosis [1]. *Calcium malabsorption* - While **malabsorption syndromes** can cause osteoporosis, asthma itself does not directly lead to primary calcium malabsorption. - Steroids used in asthma treatment can *contribute* to reduced calcium absorption, but the primary mechanism of steroid-induced osteoporosis involves broader effects on bone metabolism, not solely malabsorption [1]. *Inflammatory mediators* - **Inflammatory mediators** associated with asthma may play a role in bone density loss, but their direct impact is less significant and less common than the effects of chronic steroid use [2]. - While chronic inflammation can indirectly affect bone remodeling, it is not the most likely or direct mechanism for osteoporosis in this clinical scenario compared to steroid exposure [1]. *Physical inactivity* - **Physical inactivity** can contribute to osteoporosis due to reduced mechanical loading on bones, but it is not a direct or primary cause specific to bronchial asthma [3]. - While severe asthma may lead to some activity limitation, the primary mechanism linking asthma treatment to osteoporosis is typically medication-related, rather than lifestyle factors alone.

Question 10: Withdrawal from which of the following has led to symptoms of excessive yawning, lacrimation, hypertension, and tachycardia, along with dilated pupils in a patient?

A. Morphine (Correct Answer)
B. Cannabis
C. Cocaine
D. Amphetamine

Explanation: ***Morphine*** - The constellation of symptoms including **excessive yawning, lacrimation, hypertension, tachycardia**, and **dilated pupils** are classic signs of opioid withdrawal, such as from morphine. - Opioid withdrawal symptoms are primarily caused by the **rebound hyperactivity of the noradrenergic system** due to the sudden cessation of opioid-induced central nervous system depression. *Cannabis withdrawal* - Characterized by symptoms like **irritability, anxiety, sleep disturbances, decreased appetite**, and **headaches**. - **Autonomic hyperactivity** with dilated pupils, tachycardia, and hypertension is typically not a prominent feature of cannabis withdrawal. *Cocaine withdrawal* - Primarily involves **dysphoria, fatigue, increased appetite, psychomotor retardation or agitation**, and vivid unpleasant dreams, often referred to as a "crash." - While mood disturbances are significant, **autonomic signs like lacrimation, yawning, and dilated pupils** are not typical of cocaine withdrawal. *Amphetamine withdrawal* - Symptoms include **fatigue, increased appetite, hypersomnia or insomnia, psychomotor agitation or retardation**, and **depression**. - Similar to cocaine withdrawal, it lacks the specific autonomic hyperactivity patterns seen with opioid withdrawal, such as **lacrimation** and **yawning**.

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