First Episode Psychosis — MCQs
Which of the following statements is true regarding delusional disorder?
Which class of drugs is primarily used for the treatment of schizophrenia?
Which of the following is NOT a feature of neurosis?
F00 in ICD denotes
Insane paresis is associated with -
Which of the following behavioral problems would suggest an organic brain lesion?
Most reliable marker of conversion to psychosis in high-risk individuals:
What is the most reliable marker of conversion to psychosis in high-risk individuals?
Which of the following is not a feature of psychosis?
Most reliable marker of conversion to psychosis in high-risk individuals:
First Episode Psychosis Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Which of the following statements is true regarding delusional disorder?
- A. Occurs at early age
- B. Held with absolute conviction (Correct Answer)
- C. More commonly occurs in middle to late adulthood
- D. Often not amenable to reasoning
Explanation: ***Held with absolute conviction*** - This is the **BEST ANSWER** as it describes a **core diagnostic criterion** for delusions in delusional disorder per DSM-5/ICD-11. - Delusions are defined as **fixed, false beliefs held with absolute conviction** despite clear evidence to the contrary. - This unwavering certainty is what distinguishes delusions from overvalued ideas or normal beliefs. - This statement captures the fundamental **nature and defining characteristic** of the disorder itself. *More commonly occurs in middle to late adulthood* - This statement is **factually TRUE** - delusional disorder typically has onset between ages 40-55 (middle to late adulthood). - However, this describes **epidemiological data** (when it occurs), not a defining feature of the disorder. - While accurate, it is less fundamental than the absolute conviction which is a **diagnostic criterion**. *Often not amenable to reasoning* - This statement is also **factually TRUE** - patients with delusional disorder cannot be reasoned out of their false beliefs. - However, this is a **consequence** of the absolute conviction, not the primary defining feature. - The inability to respond to reasoning stems from the unwavering belief system. *Occurs at early age* - This is **FALSE** - delusional disorder is rare in early age. - Typical onset is in **middle to late adulthood** (ages 40-55), not childhood or adolescence. - Early onset would be atypical for this disorder.
Question 2: Which class of drugs is primarily used for the treatment of schizophrenia?
- A. Mood stabilizers
- B. Antihistamines
- C. Antipsychotic medications (Correct Answer)
- D. Antidepressants
Explanation: ***Antipsychotic medications*** - **Antipsychotic medications** primarily target **dopamine receptors** in the brain, which are implicated in the positive symptoms of schizophrenia like **hallucinations** and **delusions**. - They also have effects on other neurotransmitter systems, such as **serotonin**, contributing to their efficacy in managing negative and cognitive symptoms. *Mood stabilizers* - **Mood stabilizers** are primarily used for conditions characterized by extreme mood swings, such as **bipolar disorder**. - While they may be used adjunctively in some cases of schizophrenia to manage mood symptoms, they are not the primary treatment class. *Antihistamines* - **Antihistamines** are primarily used to treat **allergic reactions**, **insomnia**, or **nausea**. - They do not address the core neurochemical imbalances associated with schizophrenia and are not indicated for its treatment. *Antidepressants* - **Antidepressants** are primarily used to treat **depressive disorders** by modulating neurotransmitters like serotonin and norepinephrine. - While depression can co-occur with schizophrenia, antidepressants are not the primary treatment for the psychotic symptoms of schizophrenia and may even exacerbate psychosis in some individuals.
Question 3: Which of the following is NOT a feature of neurosis?
- A. Symptoms cause subjective distress
- B. Contact with reality preserved
- C. Personality disturbances (Correct Answer)
- D. Insight is maintained
Explanation: ***Personality disturbances*** - While neurosis can cause significant distress and impact functioning, it does not typically involve **fundamental alterations in personality structure or identity**. - **Personality disorders**, not neuroses, are characterized by deeply ingrained, inflexible, and maladaptive patterns of perceiving, thinking, and behaving that deviate markedly from cultural expectations. *Symptoms cause subjective distress* - A core characteristic of neurosis is that the individual experiences significant **emotional suffering** and discomfort due to their symptoms, such as anxiety, phobias, or obsessions. - This **subjective distress** is often a primary motivator for seeking treatment. *Contact with reality preserved* - Individuals with neurosis maintain their ability to **distinguish between internal experiences and external reality**, unlike in psychosis where this distinction is lost. - They may understand that their fears or anxieties are irrational, but they are unable to control them. *Insight is maintained* - People with neurosis generally have some level of **awareness** that they have a problem or that their symptoms are unreasonable or excessive. - This **insight** allows them to recognize the need for help and engage in therapeutic processes.
Question 4: F00 in ICD denotes
- A. mood disorders
- B. organic disorders (Correct Answer)
- C. substance use
- D. psychosis
Explanation: ***Organic disorders - CORRECT*** - **F00-F09** in the **International Classification of Diseases (ICD-10)** Chapter V (Mental and behavioural disorders) specifically denotes **organic, including symptomatic, mental disorders** - These disorders are characterized by brain disease, brain injury, or other insult leading to **cerebral dysfunction** - **F00** specifically refers to **Dementia in Alzheimer's disease** *Mood disorders - Incorrect* - Mood disorders are classified under codes **F30-F39** in ICD-10 - This category includes conditions like bipolar affective disorder, depressive episodes, and recurrent depressive disorders *Substance use - Incorrect* - Mental and behavioral disorders due to psychoactive substance use are classified under codes **F10-F19** in ICD-10 - This section covers disorders resulting from the use of alcohol, opioids, cannabis, sedatives, hypnotics, and other substances *Psychosis - Incorrect* - Specific psychotic disorders like schizophrenia are classified under codes **F20-F29** in ICD-10 - Psychosis can be a symptom of various mental disorders, including some organic conditions
Question 5: Insane paresis is associated with -
- A. Leishmaniasis
- B. Yellow fever
- C. Syphilis (Correct Answer)
- D. Neisseria meningitidis
Explanation: ***Syphilis*** - **General paresis**, or "insane paresis," is a neuropsychiatric manifestation of **tertiary syphilis**, resulting from chronic meningoencephalitis. - It presents with progressive **dementia**, personality changes, delusions, and neurological deficits. *Leishmaniasis* - This parasitic disease is characterized by various forms including **cutaneous**, **mucocutaneous**, and **visceral leishmaniasis** (kala-azar). - It typically causes skin lesions, mucocutaneous destruction, or systemic symptoms like fever, hepatosplenomegaly, and pancytopenia, but not general paresis. *Yellow fever* - **Yellow fever** is a viral hemorrhagic disease transmitted by mosquitoes, primarily affecting the liver and kidneys. - Symptoms include fever, jaundice, hemorrhage, and shock, but not the neurological degeneration seen in general paresis. *Neisseria meningitidis* - This bacterium causes **meningococcal meningitis** and **meningococcemia**, which are acute and severe infectious diseases. - While it can lead to acute neurological symptoms due to meningitis, it does not cause the chronic, progressive neuropsychiatric syndrome known as general paresis.
Question 6: Which of the following behavioral problems would suggest an organic brain lesion?
- A. Auditory hallucinations
- B. Formal thought disorder
- C. Depression
- D. Visual hallucinations (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Visual hallucinations*** - While visual hallucinations can occur in primary psychiatric disorders, they are *more commonly* associated with **organic brain lesions** (e.g., tumors, delirium, dementia, substance withdrawal) compared to auditory hallucinations. - They often indicate **neurological dysfunction** and warrant further investigation for an underlying physical cause. *Auditory hallucinations* - **Auditory hallucinations** are a hallmark symptom of **psychotic disorders** such as **schizophrenia**, and are less specific for organic brain lesions unless they are complex and multimodal. - While possible in organic conditions (e.g., temporal lobe epilepsy), they are more strongly linked to functional psychiatric illness than visual hallucinations. *Formal thought disorder* - **Formal thought disorder** (e.g., loosening of associations, word salad, tangentiality) is a core symptom of **schizophrenia** and other primary psychotic disorders. - It is a disturbance in the *form* of thought rather than its content, and is primarily a **psychiatric phenomenon**. *Depression* - **Depression** is a common mood disorder with diverse etiologies, including psychosocial stressors and neurochemical imbalances, but it is not typically indicative of a focal **organic brain lesion**. - Although depression can coexist with neurological conditions, it is not a direct behavioral symptom of a localized brain injury.
Question 7: Most reliable marker of conversion to psychosis in high-risk individuals:
- A. Cognitive decline
- B. Sleep disruption
- C. Social withdrawal
- D. Basic symptoms (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Basic symptoms*** - **Basic symptoms** are subtle, subjective disturbances of thought, perception, and motor control that are often precursors to full-blown psychotic episodes. - They are considered the **most reliable markers** for predicting conversion to psychosis in high-risk individuals because they directly reflect underlying neurobiological vulnerabilities. *Cognitive decline* - While **cognitive decline** can be a feature in individuals at high risk for psychosis, it is a less specific predictor as it can occur in various other neurological and psychiatric conditions. - It often represents a broader, non-specific marker of underlying brain dysfunction rather than a direct indicator of impending psychosis. *Sleep disruption* - **Sleep disruption** is a common symptom reported by individuals at high risk for psychosis and can exacerbate psychiatric symptoms. - However, **sleep disturbances** are highly prevalent in the general population and across many psychiatric disorders, making them a less specific and reliable predictor of psychosis conversion compared to basic symptoms. *Social withdrawal* - **Social withdrawal** is a frequently observed prodromal symptom in individuals who later develop psychosis. - While it indicates a change in functioning, it is a non-specific behavioral change that can be linked to depression, anxiety, or other stressors, making it less specific than basic symptoms in predicting psychosis.
Question 8: What is the most reliable marker of conversion to psychosis in high-risk individuals?
- A. Social withdrawal
- B. Cognitive decline
- C. Basic symptoms (Correct Answer)
- D. Sleep disruption
Explanation: ***Basic symptoms*** - **Basic symptoms** (BS) are self-experienced, subtle disturbances in mental processes that are considered the most reliable predictors of conversion to psychosis in high-risk individuals. - They reflect early, subclinical alterations in information processing and are often reported before the emergence of more overt psychotic symptoms. *Social withdrawal* - While **social withdrawal** is a common prodromal symptom of psychosis, it is not as specific or reliable as basic symptoms for predicting conversion. - It can be present in various mental health conditions, including depression and anxiety, and may not directly indicate an impending psychotic episode. *Cognitive decline* - **Cognitive decline** can be a feature of the prodromal phase of psychosis but is often measured using objective neuropsychological tests and may not be consistently reported by individuals as a subjective experience in the same way as basic symptoms. - Its predictive power might be lower compared to the direct self-reported nature of basic symptoms. *Sleep disruption* - **Sleep disruption** is a frequent symptom in individuals at high risk for psychosis and can exacerbate other symptoms. - However, it is a non-specific symptom that is common across a wide range of psychiatric disorders and lacks the diagnostic precision of basic symptoms for predicting conversion to psychosis.
Question 9: Which of the following is not a feature of psychosis?
- A. Loss of insight
- B. Preserved contact with reality (Correct Answer)
- C. Personality disturbances
- D. Presence of delusions
Explanation: ***Preserved contact with reality*** - Psychosis is fundamentally characterized by a **loss of contact with reality**, making this option a defining non-feature of the condition. - Individuals experiencing psychosis often have profound difficulties distinguishing between what is real and what is not. *Loss of insight* - **Lack of insight** into one's own mental illness is a hallmark feature of psychosis, meaning the affected individual may not recognize their thoughts or perceptions as abnormal. - This symptom contributes to the difficulty in engaging individuals with psychosis in treatment. *Presence of delusions* - **Delusions** are fixed, false beliefs that are resistant to reason or evidence, and they are a core positive symptom of psychosis. - These beliefs are often bizarre and can significantly impair an individual's functioning and perception of reality. *Personality disturbances* - While not a primary diagnostic criterion, **personality disturbances** can be associated with psychotic disorders. - Changes in personality, mood, and behavior may occur as a result of the psychotic experience or the underlying illness.
Question 10: Most reliable marker of conversion to psychosis in high-risk individuals:
- A. Sleep disruption
- B. Cognitive decline
- C. Basic symptoms (Correct Answer)
- D. Social withdrawal
Explanation: ***Basic symptoms*** - **Basic symptoms** (BS) are self-experienced, subtle, subjective disturbances of thought, perception, language, attention, and motor control that represent the earliest detectable signs of psychosis risk. - They are considered **highly specific** to schizophrenia spectrum disorders and show good predictive validity for conversion to psychosis, particularly when persistent. - Basic symptoms reflect direct manifestations of underlying neuropathological processes and can precede full-blown psychotic symptoms by months to years. - Among the options provided, they represent the **most direct and specific marker** related to emerging psychotic processes. *Sleep disruption* - While **sleep disruption** is common in individuals at risk for psychosis and can exacerbate symptoms, it is **non-specific** and occurs across multiple psychiatric and medical conditions. - Sleep disturbances lack the specificity needed to reliably predict conversion to psychosis. *Cognitive decline* - **Cognitive deficits** (attention, memory, executive function) are observed in high-risk individuals and can precede psychosis. - However, cognitive changes are influenced by multiple factors (depression, anxiety, substance use) and are **less specific** than subjective perceptual and cognitive disturbances of basic symptoms. *Social withdrawal* - **Social withdrawal** is a prodromal symptom reflecting declining social functioning, but it is a **broad behavioral change** that can occur in depression, anxiety, and personality disorders. - It lacks the specificity and direct connection to psychotic processes that characterize basic symptoms.
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