Psychopharmacology Practice Questions

Q: What is the drug of choice for bipolar mood disorder?

Lithium carbonate. **Explanation:** **Lithium carbonate** remains the gold standard and the **drug of choice (DOC)** for the treatment of Bipolar Mood Disorder (BMD). It is unique because it is effective in treating acute mania, preventing future manic and depressive relapses (prophylaxis), and is the only psychiatric medication proven to significantly **reduce the risk of suicide** in these patients. Its mechanism involves the inhibition of the inositol monophosphatase pathway and modulation of G-proteins. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Carbamazepine (Option A):** While used as a mood stabilizer, it is generally considered a second-line agent. It is preferred in cases of "Rapid Cycling" BMD or when patients do not respond to Lithium. * **Imipramine (Option C):** This is a Tricyclic Antidepressant (TCA). Using antidepressants alone in BMD is risky as they can precipitate a "switch" into acute mania. * **Buspirone (Option D):** This is a non-benzodiazepine anxiolytic used primarily for Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD). It has no role in the stabilization of mood in BMD. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Therapeutic Index:** Lithium has a narrow therapeutic index. Monitoring serum levels is essential (Target: **0.8–1.2 mEq/L** for acute mania; **0.6–0.8 mEq/L** for maintenance). * **Teratogenicity:** Use in pregnancy is associated with **Ebstein’s Anomaly** (atrialization of the right ventricle). * **Side Effects:** Common boards-favorite side effects include fine tremors, hypothyroidism, and Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus. * **Drug Interactions:** Thiazides, NSAIDs, and ACE inhibitors can increase Lithium levels, leading to toxicity.

Q: Which recently approved NMDA blocker is used for the management of treatment-resistant depression in adults?

Esketamine. **Explanation:** **Esketamine** is the correct answer. It is the S-enantiomer of ketamine and acts as a non-competitive **N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor antagonist**. In 2019, the FDA approved Esketamine (nasal spray) for **Treatment-Resistant Depression (TRD)** in adults, defined as patients who have not responded to at least two antidepressant treatments of adequate dose and duration. Unlike traditional antidepressants that target monoamines (Serotonin/Norepinephrine) and take weeks to work, Esketamine modulates glutamate neurotransmission, providing rapid-acting antidepressant effects. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Siponimod (B):** A sphingosine-1-phosphate (S1P) receptor modulator used for the treatment of secondary progressive multiple sclerosis (SPMS). * **Erdafitinib (C):** A fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR) kinase inhibitor used in the treatment of metastatic urothelial carcinoma. * **Risankizumab (D):** An interleukin-23 (IL-23) inhibitor used for plaque psoriasis, psoriatic arthritis, and Crohn’s disease. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Administration:** Esketamine is administered as a **nasal spray** under direct medical supervision due to risks of sedation and dissociation. * **Monitoring:** Patients must be monitored for at least **2 hours** post-administration for blood pressure spikes and "out-of-body" experiences (dissociation). * **Mechanism:** It increases the expression of **BDNF** (Brain-Derived Neurotrophic Factor) and enhances synaptic plasticity. * **Ketamine vs. Esketamine:** While both are NMDA blockers, Esketamine has a higher affinity for the NMDA receptor, allowing for lower dosing.

Q: Which antidepressant is commonly used for depressive symptoms in children?

Fluoxetine. **Explanation:** **Fluoxetine** is the correct answer because it is the only antidepressant with robust clinical evidence and FDA approval for the treatment of Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) in children and adolescents (ages 8 and older). 1. **Why Fluoxetine is Correct:** In pediatric populations, Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line pharmacological treatment. Fluoxetine has a long half-life, which minimizes withdrawal symptoms if a dose is missed, and it has demonstrated the best efficacy-to-safety ratio in landmark trials like the TADS (Treatment for Adolescents with Depression Study). 2. **Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Clomipramine & Amitriptyline:** These are Tricyclic Antidepressants (TCAs). TCAs are generally **not effective** for depression in pre-pubertal children and carry a high risk of cardiotoxicity (arrhythmias due to QTc prolongation) and anticholinergic side effects. Clomipramine is primarily used in children for OCD, not depression. * **Escitalopram:** While approved for MDD in adolescents (ages 12–17), it is not the first-line choice for younger children compared to Fluoxetine. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Black Box Warning:** All antidepressants carry a boxed warning regarding the increased risk of **suicidal ideation** and behavior in children, adolescents, and young adults (up to age 24). * **First-line for Pediatric OCD:** Sertraline, Fluoxetine, and Fluvoxamine are commonly used. * **First-line for Enuresis:** While TCAs (Imipramine) can be used, the first-line treatment is behavioral (enuresis alarms) or Desmopressin. * **Combination Therapy:** For adolescent depression, the combination of **Fluoxetine + CBT** (Cognitive Behavioral Therapy) is superior to either treatment alone.

Q: Which of the following drugs is preferred for the management of depression associated with insomnia?

Mianserin. **Explanation:** The correct answer is **Mianserin**. **1. Why Mianserin is correct:** Mianserin is a tetracyclic antidepressant (TeCA) that acts as a potent antagonist at **H1 (histamine)** and **5-HT2** receptors. Its strong antihistaminic property provides a significant **sedative effect**, making it highly effective for depressed patients suffering from prominent insomnia. Unlike many other antidepressants, it lacks significant anticholinergic side effects, which often makes it better tolerated in specific populations. **2. Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Venlafaxine (SNRI):** This drug increases norepinephrine and serotonin levels. It is generally considered **activating** and can actually cause or worsen insomnia as a side effect. * **Sertraline (SSRI):** Like most SSRIs, sertraline is more likely to cause insomnia, restlessness, or agitation, especially during the initial phase of treatment. It is typically administered in the morning. * **Desipramine (TCA):** While some TCAs are sedative (like Amitriptyline), Desipramine is a secondary amine that primarily inhibits norepinephrine reuptake. It is one of the **least sedating** TCAs and can sometimes be stimulating. **3. NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Mirtazapine** (a related NaSSA) is also a high-yield answer for depression with insomnia/weight loss due to its H1 antagonism and weight-gain profile. * **Trazodone** is another antidepressant frequently used "off-label" at low doses specifically for its hypnotic properties. * **Mechanism of Mianserin:** It blocks alpha-2 adrenergic receptors (increasing NE release) and 5-HT2, 5-HT3, and H1 receptors. * **Side Effect Note:** Mianserin is associated with a rare risk of **agranulocytosis**; therefore, monitoring of CBC is sometimes recommended.

Q: All of the following can be considered as treatment for anxiety except?

Dopaminergic blockers. **Explanation:** The correct answer is **D. Dopaminergic blockers**. **Why Dopaminergic blockers are the exception:** Dopaminergic blockers (Antipsychotics) are primarily used to treat psychosis (e.g., Schizophrenia) and Mania. While some atypical antipsychotics are used as adjuncts in treatment-resistant cases, they are **not** considered a primary or standard treatment for anxiety disorders. In fact, blocking dopamine can sometimes lead to **Akathisia** (subjective restlessness), which can mimic or worsen the symptoms of anxiety. **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Buspirone:** A selective 5-HT1A partial agonist specifically indicated for **Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)**. It is preferred for long-term use as it lacks the sedative and addictive potential of benzodiazepines. * **Benzodiazepines (BZDs):** These act by enhancing GABAergic inhibition. They are highly effective for **acute symptomatic relief** of anxiety and panic attacks due to their rapid onset of action. * **Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs/SNRIs):** These are currently the **First-line pharmacological treatment** for almost all chronic anxiety disorders (GAD, Panic Disorder, Social Anxiety, and OCD) due to their efficacy and safety profile. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Drug of Choice (DOC) for GAD/Panic Disorder:** SSRIs (Long-term); Benzodiazepines (Acute/Short-term). * **Buspirone** takes 2–4 weeks to show effects; it is ineffective "as needed" (PRN). * **Performance Anxiety:** Propropanol (Beta-blocker) is the DOC, taken 30–60 minutes before the event. * **OCD:** Requires higher doses of SSRIs compared to depression or GAD.

Q: Which of the following is a side effect of vagal nerve stimulation?

Voice alteration. **Explanation:** **Vagus Nerve Stimulation (VNS)** is an FDA-approved neuromodulation technique used for treatment-resistant depression and refractory epilepsy. It involves a surgically implanted device that sends electrical pulses to the left vagus nerve. **Why Voice Alteration is Correct:** The vagus nerve (Cranial Nerve X) provides motor innervation to the muscles of the larynx via the **recurrent laryngeal nerve**. During the "on-cycle" of the electrical stimulation, the laryngeal muscles are affected, leading to the most common side effect: **voice alteration or hoarseness**. Other common stimulation-related side effects include cough, throat tickling, and mild dyspnea. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Paradoxical suicide:** While antidepressants carry a black-box warning for increased suicidal ideation in young adults, VNS is actually associated with a long-term *reduction* in suicidal ideation in treatment-resistant patients. * **C. Arrhythmia:** Although the vagus nerve influences heart rate, VNS is typically performed on the **left** vagus nerve because the right vagus nerve has a more significant innervation of the sinoatrial (SA) node. Stimulating the left side minimizes the risk of bradycardia or arrhythmias. * **D. Epilepsy:** VNS is a **treatment** for epilepsy, not a cause. It is used to reduce the frequency of seizures in patients who do not respond to anti-epileptic drugs. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Indication:** Treatment-resistant depression (failed 4+ adequate antidepressant trials). * **Site:** The pulse generator is usually implanted in the left chest wall, and electrodes are wrapped around the **left** vagus nerve. * **Side Effect Profile:** Most side effects are "stimulus-dependent," meaning they only occur when the device is actively pulsing. * **Contraindication:** VNS is contraindicated in patients with bilateral or left cervical vagotomy.

Q: What is the drug of choice for the treatment of negative symptoms of schizophrenia?

Clozapine. **Explanation:** The treatment of schizophrenia involves addressing both **positive symptoms** (hallucinations, delusions) and **negative symptoms** (apathy, anhedonia, social withdrawal, alogia). **Why Clozapine is the Correct Answer:** Clozapine is an **Atypical Antipsychotic (Second-Generation Antipsychotic)**. Unlike typical antipsychotics that primarily block $D_2$ receptors, atypical agents like Clozapine have a high affinity for **$5-HT_{2A}$ receptors** and a relatively lower affinity for $D_2$ receptors. This serotonin-dopamine antagonism in the mesocortical pathway is believed to improve negative symptoms and cognitive deficits. Clozapine is specifically indicated for **treatment-resistant schizophrenia** and is considered the most effective drug for reducing negative symptoms. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A & B (Chlorpromazine & Haloperidol):** These are **Typical Antipsychotics (First-Generation)**. They act via potent $D_2$ blockade in the mesolimbic pathway. While effective for positive symptoms, they are largely ineffective for negative symptoms and may even worsen them by causing "secondary negative symptoms" due to extrapyramidal side effects (EPS). * **D (Doxepin):** This is a **Tricyclic Antidepressant (TCA)**. It has no role in the primary treatment of schizophrenia or its negative symptoms. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Clozapine Side Effects:** Agranulocytosis (requires mandatory WBC monitoring), seizures (dose-dependent), myocarditis, and significant weight gain/metabolic syndrome. * **DOC for Treatment-Resistant Schizophrenia:** Clozapine (defined as failure of 2 adequate trials of other antipsychotics). * **Suicide Prevention:** Clozapine is the only antipsychotic FDA-approved to reduce the risk of suicidal behavior in schizophrenia. * **Negative Symptoms:** Often associated with decreased dopaminergic activity in the **mesocortical pathway**.

Q: What is the most common side effect experienced after electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)?

Headache. **Explanation:** **Correct Option: A. Headache** Headache is the **most common** side effect of Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT), occurring in approximately 45% to 50% of patients. It is typically tension-type in nature and is attributed to the transient increase in intracranial pressure and muscle contractions (masseter and temporal muscles) during the seizure. It is usually mild and responds well to simple analgesics like paracetamol or NSAIDs. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **B. Seizures:** While ECT involves inducing a controlled therapeutic seizure, **prolonged or spontaneous seizures** are rare complications rather than common side effects. * **C. Anterograde Amnesia:** This refers to the inability to form new memories. While it occurs post-ECT, it usually resolves rapidly (within weeks) and is less frequent than headaches. * **D. Retrograde Amnesia:** This is the inability to recall past events (especially those close to the time of treatment). While it is the most common **cognitive** side effect and can be distressing, it is statistically less frequent than the occurrence of post-ictal headaches. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common side effect:** Headache. * **Most common cognitive side effect:** Retrograde amnesia. * **Most common cause of death:** Cardiovascular complications (arrhythmias/myocardial infarction). * **Absolute Contraindication:** Increased Intracranial Pressure (ICP) (e.g., brain tumor, recent hemorrhage). * **Gold Standard for Depression:** ECT is the most effective treatment for severe, treatment-resistant depression and catatonia. * **Electrode Placement:** Bilateral (modified Gold standard) is more effective but has more cognitive side effects; Unilateral (d'Elia placement) has fewer side effects.

Question 1

What is the drug of choice for bipolar mood disorder?

Accepted Answer

Lithium carbonate

Answer

Carbamazepine

Answer

Imipramine

Answer

Buspirone

Question 2

Which recently approved NMDA blocker is used for the management of treatment-resistant depression in adults?

Accepted Answer

Esketamine

Answer

Siponimod

Answer

Erdafitinib

Answer

Risankizumab

Question 3

Which antidepressant is commonly used for depressive symptoms in children?

Accepted Answer

Fluoxetine

Answer

Clomipramine

Answer

Amitriptyline

Answer

Escitalopram

Question 4

Which of the following drugs is preferred for the management of depression associated with insomnia?

Accepted Answer

Mianserin

Answer

Venlafaxine

Answer

Sertraline

Answer

Desipramine

Question 5

All of the following can be considered as treatment for anxiety except?

Accepted Answer

Dopaminergic blockers

Answer

Buspirone

Answer

Benzodiazepines

Answer

Serotonin reuptake inhibitors

Question 6

A patient with a history of depression is prescribed Imipramine. One week later, bystanders complain that she is experiencing hallucinations and excessive talking. What would be your advice on follow-up?

Accepted Answer

Add sodium valproate to antidepressants

Answer

Stop the current antidepressant

Answer

Mood stabilizers

Answer

Add antipsychotics

Question 7

Which of the following is a side effect of vagal nerve stimulation?

Accepted Answer

Voice alteration

Answer

Paradoxical suicide

Answer

Arrhythmia

Answer

Epilepsy

Question 8

What is the drug of choice for the treatment of negative symptoms of schizophrenia?

Accepted Answer

Clozapine

Answer

Chlorpromazine

Answer

Haloperidol

Answer

Doxepin

Question 9

A 43-year-old male is diagnosed with Schizophrenia but refuses treatment. Which of the following antipsychotic drugs is the treatment of choice for this patient?

Accepted Answer

Fluphenazine

Answer

Clozapine

Answer

Risperidone

Answer

Olanzapine

Question 10

What is the most common side effect experienced after electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)?

Accepted Answer

Headache

Answer

Seizures

Answer

Anterograde amnesia

Answer

Retrograde amnesia

Psychopharmacology — MCQs

Psychopharmacology — MCQs

On this page

Practice by Chapter

Want unlimited practice?