Psychopharmacology Practice Questions

Q: What is the prophylactic maintenance serum level of lithium?

0.5 - 0.8 mEq/L. Lithium is a mood stabilizer with a narrow therapeutic index, meaning the margin between a therapeutic dose and a toxic dose is very small. Monitoring serum levels is critical for safety and efficacy. **Explanation of the Correct Answer:** * **Option A (0.5 – 0.8 mEq/L):** This is the standard range for **prophylactic maintenance** in patients with Bipolar Disorder who are currently stable. Maintaining levels at the lower end of the therapeutic spectrum minimizes long-term side effects (like renal or thyroid toxicity) while preventing future manic or depressive episodes. **Explanation of Incorrect Options:** * **Option B (0.7 – 1.2 mEq/L):** This range is typically reserved for the **Acute Manic Phase**. During an active episode, higher concentrations are required to achieve clinical stabilization. * **Option C (1.2 – 2.0 mEq/L):** This range indicates **Mild to Moderate Toxicity**. Patients may present with coarse tremors, vomiting, diarrhea, and ataxia. * **Option D (2.0 – 2.5 mEq/L):** This indicates **Severe Toxicity**. It is a medical emergency that can lead to seizures, coma, and death. Hemodialysis is often indicated if levels exceed 2.5 mEq/L (or 4.0 mEq/L in chronic users). **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Sampling Time:** Serum levels should be measured **12 hours after the last dose** (Trough level). * **Steady State:** It takes approximately **5 days** (5 half-lives) to reach a steady state after starting or changing a dose. * **Teratogenicity:** Lithium is associated with **Ebstein’s Anomaly** (atrialization of the right ventricle) if taken during the first trimester. * **Drug Interactions:** Thiazides, NSAIDs, and ACE inhibitors can **increase** lithium levels, leading to toxicity.

Q: Antipsychotic-induced akathisia is characterized by which of the following manifestations?

Restlessness. **Explanation:** **Akathisia** is the most common extrapyramidal side effect (EPS) associated with antipsychotic medication. It is characterized by a subjective feeling of **inner restlessness** and an objective need to be in constant motion. Patients often describe it as a "desire to jump out of one's skin." Clinically, this manifests as pacing, shifting weight from foot to foot, or inability to sit still. **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **A. Rigidity:** This is a feature of **Drug-Induced Parkinsonism** (often described as "lead-pipe" or "cogwheel" rigidity) or Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS). * **B. Tremor:** A rhythmic, oscillatory movement (typically a resting tremor) is another hallmark of **Drug-Induced Parkinsonism**, not akathisia. * **C. Spasm of a muscle group:** This describes **Acute Dystonia**, which involves sudden, involuntary contractions of muscles (e.g., torticollis, oculogyric crisis). Dystonia typically occurs within hours to days of starting medication, whereas akathisia usually appears within days to weeks. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Mechanism:** Thought to be due to dopamine (D2) blockade in the nigrostriatal pathway. * **Management:** The first-line treatment for akathisia is **Beta-blockers (Propranolol)**. Centrally acting anticholinergics (like Benztropine) or Benzodiazepines may also be used, but are generally less effective than Propranolol. * **Clinical Significance:** Akathisia is highly distressing and is a major cause of non-compliance and increased suicide risk in patients on antipsychotics.

Q: A patient diagnosed with Schizophrenia and exhibiting violent behavior and agitation is being treated with haloperidol. The patient subsequently develops rigidity and inability to move their eyes. Which of the following medications should be administered intravenously to manage these new symptoms?

Promethazine. ### Explanation **Concept: Acute Dystonia** The patient is experiencing **Acute Dystonia**, a common Extrapyramidal Side Effect (EPS) of high-potency first-generation antipsychotics like Haloperidol. The "rigidity" and "inability to move eyes" (specifically **Oculogyric Crisis**) result from a sudden dopamine-acetylcholine imbalance in the nigrostriatal pathway, leading to excessive cholinergic activity. **Why Promethazine is Correct:** The management of acute dystonia requires an **anticholinergic agent**. Promethazine is a first-generation antihistamine with potent central anticholinergic properties. When administered intravenously (or intramuscularly), it rapidly restores the dopamine-acetylcholine balance, relieving the muscle spasms. Other standard treatments include Benztropine or Diphenhydramine. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Diazepam:** While a benzodiazepine can help with general agitation or muscle relaxation, it is not the specific antidote for the cholinergic excess seen in dystonia. * **B. Risperidone:** This is an atypical antipsychotic. Adding another antipsychotic would worsen the blockade of D2 receptors and potentially exacerbate EPS. * **D. Haloperidol:** This is the offending agent. Administering more would worsen the patient's condition and increase the risk of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS). **High-Yield NEET-PG Pearls:** * **Acute Dystonia:** Occurs within hours to days of starting treatment (the "4-hour" rule). * **Oculogyric Crisis:** A specific type of dystonia where the eyes are fixed upward; it is a medical emergency due to patient distress. * **Risk Factors:** Young males and those receiving high-potency neuroleptics are at highest risk. * **Prophylaxis:** In clinical practice, Promethazine is often co-administered with Haloperidol injections to prevent these reactions.

Q: Which of the following medications is NOT used for the management of tardive dyskinesia?

Fluphenazine. **Explanation:** **Tardive Dyskinesia (TD)** is a delayed-onset extrapyramidal side effect caused by the long-term blockade of dopamine (D2) receptors, leading to **dopamine receptor supersensitivity** in the nigrostriatal pathway. **1. Why Fluphenazine is the Correct Answer:** Fluphenazine is a **high-potency, first-generation (typical) antipsychotic**. Because it is a potent D2 receptor antagonist, it is a primary **cause** of tardive dyskinesia. While increasing the dose of a typical antipsychotic might temporarily "mask" TD symptoms by blocking the supersensitive receptors, it ultimately worsens the underlying pathology. Therefore, it is never used as a treatment. **2. Analysis of Other Options:** * **Clozapine:** This is the drug of choice for patients with severe TD who still require antipsychotic treatment. It has low D2 affinity and rapid dissociation, which helps in the gradual reversal of receptor supersensitivity. * **Quetiapine:** Similar to clozapine, quetiapine is a second-generation antipsychotic with low D2 receptor binding potential and is considered a safe alternative when TD develops. * **Vitamin E:** It is often used as an adjunctive treatment based on the theory that free radical damage contributes to the neurotoxicity seen in TD. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **First-line treatment for TD:** Valbenazine or Deutetrabenazine (VMAT2 inhibitors). * **Risk Factors:** Old age, female gender, and long-term use of typical antipsychotics (e.g., Haloperidol, Fluphenazine). * **Clinical Feature:** Choreoathetoid movements, most commonly involving the mouth and tongue (oro-facial dyskinesia). * **Management Strategy:** Prevention is key. If TD occurs, the first step is to reduce the dose or switch to Clozapine/Quetiapine.

Q: Which of the following selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) is primarily used in the management of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?

fluvoxamine. **Explanation:** **Correct Answer: D. Fluvoxamine** Fluvoxamine is a Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor (SSRI) that holds the distinction of being the first SSRI specifically FDA-approved for the treatment of **Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)**. While most SSRIs are effective for OCD, Fluvoxamine is frequently highlighted in exams due to its historical significance and primary clinical association with OCD management rather than major depressive disorder. It works by increasing synaptic serotonin levels, which is the mainstay of pharmacological treatment for obsessive thoughts and compulsive behaviors. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Clomipramine:** While this is the "Gold Standard" drug for OCD and often more efficacious than SSRIs, it is a **Tricyclic Antidepressant (TCA)**, not an SSRI. The question specifically asks for an SSRI. * **B. Sertraline:** Although Sertraline is an SSRI used in OCD, Fluvoxamine is the more "classic" textbook answer when identifying an SSRI primarily associated with OCD in a multiple-choice format. * **C. Mirtazapine:** This is an **Atypical Antidepressant** (NaSSA – Noradrenergic and Specific Serotonergic Antidepressant). It is not a first-line treatment for OCD and is not an SSRI. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **First-line treatment for OCD:** SSRIs (Fluoxetine, Fluvoxamine, Sertraline, Paroxetine). * **Dosage:** OCD requires **higher doses** of SSRIs compared to Depression (e.g., Fluvoxamine up to 300mg/day). * **Duration:** Treatment must be continued for at least **10–12 weeks** before assessing response. * **Most effective treatment:** Combination of Pharmacotherapy (SSRIs) and Behavioral Therapy (**Exposure and Response Prevention - ERP**).

Q: Lithium is used in the prophylactic treatment of which of the following conditions?

Manic-depressive disorder. **Explanation:** **Lithium** is the gold-standard mood stabilizer and remains the first-line agent for the **prophylactic (maintenance) treatment of Bipolar Disorder**, historically known as **Manic-depressive disorder**. Its primary role is to prevent the recurrence of both manic and depressive episodes, though it is generally more effective at preventing mania. * **Why B is correct:** Lithium stabilizes mood by modulating neurotransmitters (reducing dopamine/glutamate and increasing GABA) and inhibiting the inositol depletion pathway. It is the only drug proven to reduce the risk of suicide in patients with mood disorders. * **Why A is incorrect:** Schizophrenia is primarily treated with antipsychotics (e.g., Risperidone, Olanzapine). While Lithium may be used as an adjunct in schizoaffective disorder, it is not the primary treatment for schizophrenia. * **Why C is incorrect:** For acute unipolar depression, SSRIs are the first line. While Lithium can "augment" antidepressants in treatment-resistant cases, it is not the standard treatment for an acute depressive episode. * **Why D is incorrect:** Conversion reaction (Functional Neurological Symptom Disorder) is a somatoform disorder treated with psychotherapy (CBT) and physical therapy, not mood stabilizers. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Therapeutic Index:** Lithium has a narrow therapeutic index. * Prophylaxis range: **0.6 – 0.8 mEq/L**. * Acute Mania range: **0.8 – 1.2 mEq/L**. * Toxicity: >1.5 mEq/L. * **Side Effects:** L-I-T-H: **L**eukocytosis, **I**nsipidus (Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus), **T**remors/Teratogenicity (Ebstein’s Anomaly), **H**ypothyroidism. * **Monitoring:** Before starting, check Renal Function Tests (RFT), Thyroid Function Tests (TFT), and ECG.

Q: A 42-year-old male with a past history of a manic episode presents with an illness of 1 month duration characterized by depressed mood, anhedonia, and profound psychomotor retardation. What is the most appropriate initial management strategy?

Antidepressants and mood stabilizers. **Explanation:** The patient presents with a current depressive episode and a documented past history of mania. This clinical profile confirms a diagnosis of **Bipolar I Disorder, Current Episode Depressed.** **1. Why Option B is Correct:** In Bipolar Depression, the primary risk of using antidepressant monotherapy (SSRIs/TCAs) is the **"manic switch"**—precipitating a transition from depression into mania or a mixed state. Therefore, antidepressants must always be co-administered with a **Mood Stabilizer** (e.g., Lithium, Valproate, or Lamotrigine). The mood stabilizer acts as a "safety net" to prevent this switch while treating the depressive symptoms. **2. Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Option A:** Antipsychotics are primarily used for psychotic symptoms or acute mania. Using them with antidepressants without a mood stabilizer does not provide the standard long-term prophylaxis required for Bipolar Disorder. * **Option C:** While some atypical antipsychotics (like Quetiapine or Lurasidone) have antidepressant properties, the combination of an antipsychotic and mood stabilizer is typically the treatment of choice for *acute mania*, not primarily for non-psychotic bipolar depression. * **Option D:** Benzodiazepines are used for anxiety or insomnia but have no efficacy in treating the core symptoms of depression or preventing manic relapses. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Drug of Choice (DOC) for Bipolar Depression:** Quetiapine, Lurasidone, or the combination of Olanzapine + Fluoxetine (OFC). * **The "Switch" Risk:** TCAs have a higher risk of inducing a manic switch compared to SSRIs or Bupropion. * **Profound Psychomotor Retardation:** This is a classic "atypical" feature often seen in bipolar depression compared to unipolar depression. * **Lithium:** Remains the gold standard for long-term prophylaxis and reducing suicide risk in Bipolar Disorder.

Question 1

An appropriate pre-Lithium work-up includes all of the following, EXCEPT?

Accepted Answer

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

Answer

Serum creatinine

Answer

Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

Answer

Serum electrolytes

Question 2

What is the drug of choice for Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder?

Accepted Answer

Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs)

Answer

Benzodiazepines

Answer

Tricyclic Antidepressants (TCAs)

Answer

Progesterone

Question 3

What is the prophylactic maintenance serum level of lithium?

Accepted Answer

0.5 - 0.8 mEq/L

Answer

0.7 - 1.2 mEq/L

Answer

1.2 - 2.0 mEq/L

Answer

2.0 - 2.5 mEq/L

Question 4

Antipsychotic-induced akathisia is characterized by which of the following manifestations?

Accepted Answer

Restlessness

Answer

Rigidity

Answer

Tremor

Answer

Spasm of a muscle or muscle group

Question 5

A patient diagnosed with Schizophrenia and exhibiting violent behavior and agitation is being treated with haloperidol. The patient subsequently develops rigidity and inability to move their eyes. Which of the following medications should be administered intravenously to manage these new symptoms?

Accepted Answer

Promethazine

Answer

Diazepam

Answer

Risperidone

Answer

Haloperidol

Question 6

Which of the following medications is NOT used for the management of tardive dyskinesia?

Accepted Answer

Fluphenazine

Answer

Clozapine

Answer

Vitamin E

Answer

Quetiapine

Question 7

A patient with schizophrenia who is currently on chlorpromazine (CPZ) therapy presents with a recurrence of auditory hallucinations. Which medication would be the most appropriate next choice?

Accepted Answer

Clozapine

Answer

Haloperidol

Answer

Sulpiride

Answer

Tianeptin

Question 8

Which of the following selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) is primarily used in the management of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?

Accepted Answer

fluvoxamine

Answer

clomipramine

Answer

sertraline

Answer

mirtazapine

Question 9

Lithium is used in the prophylactic treatment of which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

Manic-depressive disorder

Answer

Schizophrenia

Answer

Acute depression

Answer

Conversion reaction

Question 10

A 42-year-old male with a past history of a manic episode presents with an illness of 1 month duration characterized by depressed mood, anhedonia, and profound psychomotor retardation. What is the most appropriate initial management strategy?

Accepted Answer

Antidepressants and mood stabilizers

Answer

Antipsychotics and antidepressants

Answer

Antipsychotics and mood stabilizers

Answer

Antidepressants and benzodiazepines

Psychopharmacology — MCQs

Psychopharmacology — MCQs

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