Psychopharmacology Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following drugs requires serum level monitoring?

Lithium. **Explanation:** **Lithium** is the correct answer because it has a **narrow therapeutic index**, meaning the difference between a therapeutic dose and a toxic dose is very small. Therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM) is mandatory to ensure efficacy and prevent severe toxicity (nephrotoxicity, neurotoxicity). The standard therapeutic range for maintenance is **0.6 to 1.2 mEq/L**. Levels above 1.5 mEq/L are generally considered toxic. **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Lorazepam (Benzodiazepine):** These drugs have a wide therapeutic window. Clinical response and side effects (sedation) are monitored clinically rather than through serum levels. * **Amitriptyline (TCA):** While TCAs can be monitored in specific refractory cases, it is not a routine clinical requirement for standard treatment, unlike Lithium. * **Haloperidol (Antipsychotic):** Dosing is guided by clinical improvement of psychotic symptoms and the emergence of extrapyramidal side effects (EPS), not by plasma concentrations. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Sampling Time:** Lithium levels should be drawn **12 hours after the last dose** (Trough level). * **Steady State:** It takes approximately **5 days** (5 half-lives) to reach a steady state before the first level should be checked. * **Monitoring Frequency:** Initially every 1–2 weeks; once stable, every 3–6 months. * **Factors increasing Lithium levels:** Dehydration, low-sodium diet, and drugs like **NSAIDs, Thiazides, and ACE inhibitors** (mnemonic: **NSA**). * **Side Effects:** Ebstein’s anomaly (teratogenic), Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus, and Hypothyroidism.

Q: Which of the following is the drug of choice for medication-resistant schizophrenia?

Clozapine. **Explanation:** **Clozapine** is the gold-standard treatment and the **drug of choice for treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS)**. TRS is clinically defined as schizophrenia that fails to respond to adequate trials (at least 4–6 weeks) of at least two different antipsychotics at therapeutic doses. Clozapine is a Dibenzodiazepine derivative and an "atypical" (second-generation) antipsychotic. Its superior efficacy is attributed to its unique receptor profile, characterized by a high affinity for D4 and 5-HT2A receptors and a relatively low affinity for D2 receptors. It is also the only antipsychotic proven to reduce suicidal behavior in schizophrenic patients. **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Haloperidol (A) & Chlorpromazine (B):** These are first-generation (typical) antipsychotics. While effective for positive symptoms, they are not indicated for resistant cases and carry a high risk of Extrapyramidal Side Effects (EPS) and Tardive Dyskinesia. * **Flupentixol (D):** A thioxanthene derivative often used as a long-acting injectable (depot). While useful for maintenance and compliance, it has no specific role in medication-resistant schizophrenia. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Agranulocytosis:** The most dreaded side effect of Clozapine (occurs in ~1%). Mandatory **Absolute Neutrophil Count (ANC)** monitoring is required. * **Seizures:** Clozapine significantly lowers the seizure threshold in a dose-dependent manner. * **Sialorrhea:** Paradoxical hypersalivation (especially at night) is a common, bothersome side effect. * **Metabolic Syndrome:** Clozapine carries the highest risk of weight gain and diabetes among antipsychotics. * **No EPS:** Clozapine has the lowest risk of Extrapyramidal Side Effects and does not cause Tardive Dyskinesia.

Q: Which of the following medications is NOT used for schizophrenia?

Venlafaxine. **Explanation:** The correct answer is **Venlafaxine** because it is a **Serotonin-Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitor (SNRI)**, primarily used as an antidepressant and for anxiety disorders. It does not possess the dopamine (D2) receptor antagonism required to treat the core psychotic symptoms of schizophrenia. **Analysis of Options:** * **Chlorpromazine (Option A):** A prototypical **Typical (First-generation) Antipsychotic**. It works by blocking D2 receptors in the mesolimbic pathway. It is also known for its low potency and side effects like sedation and orthostatic hypotension. * **Clozapine (Option B):** An **Atypical (Second-generation) Antipsychotic**. It is the "gold standard" for **treatment-resistant schizophrenia**. It has a unique profile with high affinity for D4 and 5-HT2 receptors but carries a risk of agranulocytosis. * **Risperidone (Option C):** A commonly used **Atypical Antipsychotic**. It blocks both D2 and 5-HT2A receptors. It is notable for having a higher risk of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) and hyperprolactinemia compared to other atypicals at higher doses. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Dopamine Hypothesis:** Schizophrenia is primarily linked to overactivity of dopamine in the mesolimbic pathway (positive symptoms) and underactivity in the mesocortical pathway (negative symptoms). * **Clozapine Monitoring:** Requires mandatory WBC and ANC monitoring due to the risk of **agranulocytosis** (occurs in ~1%). It is also the only antipsychotic proven to reduce suicide risk in schizophrenia. * **Drug of Choice:** For a first episode of schizophrenia, atypical antipsychotics (like Risperidone or Olanzapine) are generally preferred over typicals due to a lower risk of tardive dyskinesia.

Q: Propranolol is useful in the management of which of the following side effects of a typical neuroleptic?

Akathisia. **Explanation:** **Akathisia** is characterized by a subjective feeling of inner restlessness and an inability to sit still. It is one of the most common and distressing Extrapyramidal Side Effects (EPS) of typical antipsychotics (neuroleptics). **Propranolol**, a non-selective beta-blocker, is the **drug of choice** for akathisia. It works by crossing the blood-brain barrier and blocking beta-adrenergic receptors, which helps alleviate the peripheral and central manifestations of restlessness. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Parkinsonism:** Drug-induced parkinsonism (rigidity, tremors, bradykinesia) is caused by dopamine (D2) blockade in the nigrostriatal pathway. It is managed with **central anticholinergics** like Benztropine or Trihexyphenidyl (Benzhexol). * **B. Acute Muscle Dystonia:** This involves sudden, painful muscle spasms (e.g., torticollis, oculogyric crisis). It is a medical emergency treated with **parenteral anticholinergics** (Promethazine or Benztropine). * **C. Tardive Dyskinesia:** This is a late-onset EPS characterized by involuntary choreoathetoid movements (e.g., lip-smacking). Propranolol is ineffective here. Management involves switching to Clozapine or using VMAT-2 inhibitors like **Valbenazine**. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Akathisia** is often misdiagnosed as worsening psychosis/agitation; increasing the neuroleptic dose will worsen it, while Propranolol will improve it. * **Benzodiazepines** (like Lorazepam) are second-line agents for akathisia. * **Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS):** Remember the "FEVER" mnemonic (Fever, Encephalopathy, Vitals unstable, Elevated CPK, Rigidity). The drug of choice is **Dantrolene** or Bromocriptine.

Q: What is an important side effect of ECT?

Retrograde amnesia. **Explanation:** Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT) is a highly effective treatment in psychiatry, but it is associated with specific cognitive side effects. **Why Retrograde Amnesia is the correct answer:** The most common and significant side effect of ECT is **cognitive impairment**, specifically memory loss. This typically manifests as **retrograde amnesia** (loss of memory for events occurring shortly before the treatment) and **anterograde amnesia** (difficulty forming new memories immediately following treatment). While anterograde amnesia usually resolves rapidly, retrograde amnesia can persist for a longer duration, making it a major clinical concern. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **B, C, and D (Death, Respiratory failure, Cardiac failure):** While these represent potential risks of any procedure involving general anesthesia and muscle relaxants (like Succinylcholine), they are **extremely rare** in modern ECT. The mortality rate of ECT is approximately 2 per 100,000 treatments, which is comparable to minor surgical procedures. Therefore, they are not considered "common" or "characteristic" side effects like memory loss. **High-Yield NEET-PG Pearls:** * **Absolute Contraindication:** Increased intracranial pressure (ICP). * **Most common side effect:** Confusion (post-ictal) and Headache. * **Most common cause of death:** Cardiovascular complications (arrhythmias/MI). * **Technique to reduce memory loss:** Using **unilateral** electrode placement (non-dominant hemisphere) and **brief-pulse** stimulation instead of bilateral or sine-wave stimulation. * **Drug of choice for induction:** Methohexital (Barbiturate). * **Muscle relaxant used:** Succinylcholine (to prevent fractures).

Q: What is the treatment for lithium-induced tremor?

Propranolol. **Explanation:** Lithium-induced tremor is a common side effect, typically presenting as a fine, symmetric, postural tremor of the hands. **1. Why Propranolol is the Correct Answer:** The primary management for lithium-induced tremor is the use of **beta-blockers**, specifically **Propranolol**. The underlying mechanism involves the blockade of peripheral beta-2 adrenergic receptors in the skeletal muscles, which reduces the amplitude of the tremor. It is the gold-standard treatment when dose reduction of Lithium is not feasible. **2. Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Amiloride:** This is a potassium-sparing diuretic used specifically to treat **Lithium-induced Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus (NDI)**. It works by blocking the epithelial sodium channels (ENaC) in the collecting duct, preventing lithium from entering and interfering with ADH action. * **Modafinil:** This is a wakefulness-promoting agent used for narcolepsy or shift-work sleep disorder; it has no role in managing tremors. * **Trihexyphenidyl:** This is an anticholinergic used for **Extrapyramidal Side Effects (EPS)** like parkinsonism or acute dystonia caused by antipsychotics. Lithium tremors are not mediated by the dopamine-acetylcholine imbalance, so anticholinergics are ineffective. **3. Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Tremor Characteristics:** Lithium causes a **fine** tremor (therapeutic levels). A **coarse** tremor is a red flag indicating **Lithium Toxicity**. * **First Step:** Always check serum lithium levels first to rule out toxicity. * **Management Ladder:** 1. Reduce dose (if possible) → 2. Eliminate caffeine → 3. Add Propranolol (20–120 mg/day). * **Other Side Effects:** Remember "LITHIUM" mnemonic: **L**eukocytosis, **I**nsipidus (NDI), **T**remor/Teratogenicity (Ebstein’s Anomaly), **H**ypothyroidism, **I**nsulin resistance, **U**rine (polyuria), **M**others (avoid in pregnancy).

Q: A 9-year-old child with a history of ADHD diagnosed at 5 years of age presents with multiple motor tics and vocal tics, including barking sounds and coprolalia. There is a family history of similar illness. The child has not received any pharmacologic agents for ADHD. Which of the following drugs would you consider initially for the treatment of the tics?

Risperidone. **Explanation:** The clinical presentation of multiple motor tics and at least one vocal tic (barking, coprolalia) persisting for more than a year in a 9-year-old child confirms a diagnosis of **Tourette Disorder**. **1. Why Risperidone is Correct:** The mainstay of pharmacological treatment for Tourette Disorder involves **Dopamine (D2) receptor antagonists**. While traditional antipsychotics like Haloperidol and Pimozide are FDA-approved, **Second-Generation Antipsychotics (SGAs)** like **Risperidone** are now preferred as first-line agents due to a more favorable side-effect profile (lower risk of extrapyramidal symptoms). Risperidone effectively reduces tic frequency and severity by modulating dopaminergic activity in the basal ganglia. **2. Why Incorrect Options are Wrong:** * **Methylphenidate:** This is a CNS stimulant used for ADHD. While the child has ADHD, stimulants can potentially **exacerbate or unmask tics** in predisposed individuals. In a patient with active Tourette symptoms, stimulants are generally avoided or used with extreme caution. * **Baclofen:** A GABA-B agonist used primarily for spasticity. It has no established role as a first-line treatment for Tourette Disorder. * **Levetiracetam:** An antiepileptic drug. While some studies explored its use in tics, it is not a standard or first-line treatment and lacks robust evidence compared to antipsychotics. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Tourette Disorder Triad:** Tics + ADHD + OCD (highly comorbid). * **First-line Non-Pharmacological Rx:** Comprehensive Behavioral Intervention for Tics (CBIT). * **Alpha-2 Agonists:** Clonidine or Guanfacine are preferred if the patient has **comorbid ADHD and mild tics**, as they address both conditions. However, for severe tics/Tourette’s, antipsychotics (Risperidone/Aripiprazole) are superior. * **Coprolalia:** (Involuntary swearing) occurs in only about 10-15% of Tourette cases.

Question 1

A 30-year-old female, married for one year, presents with hyperactivity for the past two weeks. A diagnosis of mania is made. She has had three prior episodes of mania in the last 5 years, and each time, she returns to her premorbid state after taking medication. Her urine pregnancy test is positive. Which is the preferred drug for the management of this patient?

Accepted Answer

Haloperidol

Answer

Promethazine

Answer

Clonazepam

Answer

Lithium

Question 2

Which of the following drugs requires serum level monitoring?

Accepted Answer

Lithium

Answer

Lorazepam

Answer

Amitriptyline

Answer

Haloperidol

Question 3

Lithium is the treatment of choice for which condition?

Accepted Answer

Bipolar major depressive disorder prophylaxis

Answer

Unipolar major depressive disorder prophylaxis

Answer

Schizophrenia

Answer

Acute mania

Question 4

Which of the following is the drug of choice for medication-resistant schizophrenia?

Accepted Answer

Clozapine

Answer

Haloperidol

Answer

Chlorpromazine

Answer

Flupentixol

Question 5

Which of the following medications is NOT used for schizophrenia?

Accepted Answer

Venlafaxine

Answer

Chlorpromazine

Answer

Clozapine

Answer

Risperidone

Question 6

Propranolol is useful in the management of which of the following side effects of a typical neuroleptic?

Accepted Answer

Akathisia

Answer

Parkinsonism

Answer

Acute muscle dystonia

Answer

Tardive dyskinesia

Question 7

What is an important side effect of ECT?

Accepted Answer

Retrograde amnesia

Answer

Death

Answer

Respiratory failure

Answer

Cardiac failure

Question 8

Memory disturbance following Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT) typically resolves within what timeframe?

Accepted Answer

A few weeks to a few months

Answer

A few days to a few weeks

Answer

A few months to a year

Answer

Permanent

Question 9

What is the treatment for lithium-induced tremor?

Accepted Answer

Propranolol

Answer

Amiloride

Answer

Modafinil

Answer

Trihexyphenidyl

Question 10

A 9-year-old child with a history of ADHD diagnosed at 5 years of age presents with multiple motor tics and vocal tics, including barking sounds and coprolalia. There is a family history of similar illness. The child has not received any pharmacologic agents for ADHD. Which of the following drugs would you consider initially for the treatment of the tics?

Accepted Answer

Risperidone

Answer

Baclofen

Answer

Methylphenidate

Answer

Levetiracetam

Psychopharmacology — MCQs

Psychopharmacology — MCQs

On this page

Practice by Chapter

Want unlimited practice?