Rating Scales and Questionnaires — MCQs
All are provisions of WHO mental health Gap Action Programme (mhGAP), except:
What is the total score in the Mini Mental Status Examination (MMSE)?
What will be the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score for a head injury patient who opens eyes to painful stimulus, uses inappropriate words, and localizes pain?
CAGE questionnaire is used in:
In dengue surveillance, indices that are commonly used to monitor Aedes aegypti infestation levels are all, EXCEPT:
F00 in ICD denotes
Choose the correctly matched pairs regarding the drugs used in schizophrenia: 1. D2 antagonism: Reduces positive symptoms 2. 5HT2A antagonism: Reduces negative symptoms 3. 5HT1A agonism: Weight loss 4. Muscarinic antagonism: Reduces extrapyramidal symptoms
Which of the following statements about atrial fibrillation is correct?
Type of schizophrenia with intellectual disability:
A patient inventing new words is a feature of?
Rating Scales and Questionnaires Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: All are provisions of WHO mental health Gap Action Programme (mhGAP), except:
- A. Communication regarding care
- B. Human rights
- C. Screening family members (Correct Answer)
- D. Social support
Explanation: ***Screening family members*** - The **WHO mhGAP** primarily focuses on scaling up care for **priority mental, neurological, and substance use disorders** in low- and middle-income countries. It does not explicitly include the provision of routine screening of family members of affected individuals. - While family support is crucial, direct screening of asymptomatic family members for psychiatric disorders is not a core component of the program's defined interventions for service delivery. *Communication regarding care* - **Effective communication** is a fundamental aspect of the **WHO mhGAP** to ensure patients and their families understand their condition and treatment plan. - It emphasizes **patient-centered care** and informed decision-making, which rely heavily on clear and empathetic communication from healthcare providers. *Human rights* - **Human rights** are a foundational principle of the **WHO mhGAP**, ensuring that individuals with mental disorders receive care without discrimination and with respect for their dignity and autonomy. - The program advocates for policies and practices that protect the rights of people with mental health conditions. [1] *Social support* - **Social support** is a crucial component promoted by the **WHO mhGAP**, recognizing its role in recovery and well-being for individuals with mental health conditions. - The program encourages interventions that strengthen social ties and community integration to reduce isolation and improve outcomes.
Question 2: What is the total score in the Mini Mental Status Examination (MMSE)?
- A. 25
- B. 32
- C. 30 (Correct Answer)
- D. 35
Explanation: ***Correct: 30*** - The **Mini Mental State Examination (MMSE)** is a 30-point questionnaire used to screen for **cognitive impairment** and monitor changes in cognitive function over time. - The score is calculated by summing points for correct responses across various cognitive domains such as **orientation**, **attention**, **memory**, **language**, and **visuospatial skills**. - This is the **maximum total score** achievable on the MMSE. *Incorrect: 25* - A score of 25 in the MMSE is significantly below the maximum, and depending on age and education, it often suggests **mild cognitive impairment** or early **dementia**. - While 25 is a possible score a patient can achieve, it is not the **maximum total score** for the examination itself. *Incorrect: 32* - The MMSE is standardized to have a maximum score of **30**, so 32 is higher than the possible range for this particular cognitive assessment tool. - No domain in the MMSE allows for a score that would lead to a total of 32 points. *Incorrect: 35* - Like 32, a score of 35 is beyond the **maximum achievable score** on the MMSE. - This indicates a misunderstanding of the MMSE's scoring rubric, as the highest possible score is **30 points**.
Question 3: What will be the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score for a head injury patient who opens eyes to painful stimulus, uses inappropriate words, and localizes pain?
- A. 10 (Correct Answer)
- B. 14
- C. 8
- D. 12
Explanation: ***10*** - The patient opens eyes to **painful stimulus (E2)**, uses **inappropriate words (V3)**, and **localizes pain (M5)**. - Summing these scores: **E2 + V3 + M5 = 10**. - This represents a **moderate head injury** (GCS 9-12). *14* - This score would require higher functioning in multiple domains. - Would need responses such as opening eyes to **speech (E3)**, **confused conversation (V4)**, and **localizing or obeying commands (M5-M6)**. - The described patient's responses do not reach this level of function. *8* - A GCS of **8 or less** indicates **severe head injury** requiring immediate **airway protection and intubation**. - The patient's ability to **localize pain (M5)** and use **inappropriate words (V3)** indicates a consciousness level above severe injury threshold. - This patient does not meet criteria for severe head injury. *12* - This score would require better responses in at least two categories. - Could include: opening eyes to **speech (E3)**, **confused conversation (V4)**, or **obeying commands (M6)**. - The patient's specified responses (E2 + V3 + M5) sum to only 10, not 12.
Question 4: CAGE questionnaire is used in:
- A. Opiate poisoning
- B. Alcohol dependence (Correct Answer)
- C. Dhatura poisoning
- D. Barbiturate poisoning
Explanation: ***Alcohol dependence*** - The **CAGE questionnaire** is a widely used screening tool for identifying potential **alcohol problems** and dependence. - The acronym CAGE stands for Cutting down, Annoyance by criticism, Guilty feelings, and Eye-openers, all related to drinking habits. *Opiate poisoning* - Screening for opiate use or poisoning typically involves asking about **drug use history**, conducting **urine drug screens**, and observing specific clinical signs like **pinpoint pupils** and **respiratory depression**. - The CAGE questionnaire is not designed to screen for opiate use. *Dhatura poisoning* - **Dhatura poisoning** is characterized by anticholinergic symptoms like **dilated pupils**, **dry mouth**, **tachycardia**, and **delirium**. - Diagnosis relies on clinical presentation and a history of exposure, not a specific questionnaire like CAGE. *Barbiturate poisoning* - **Barbiturate poisoning** presents with central nervous system depression, including **sedation**, **respiratory depression**, and **hypotension**. - Diagnosis involves a clinical assessment, history of barbiturate use, and toxicology screens, not the CAGE questionnaire.
Question 5: In dengue surveillance, indices that are commonly used to monitor Aedes aegypti infestation levels are all, EXCEPT:
- A. Street index (Correct Answer)
- B. House index
- C. Breteau index
- D. Pupae index
Explanation: ***Street index*** - The **Street index** is not a standard entomological index used for monitoring *Aedes aegypti* infestation levels or density in dengue surveillance. - Surveillance efforts typically focus on household-level indices to assess mosquito breeding sites. *House index* - The **House index** (HI) measures the percentage of houses infested with *Aedes* larvae and/or pupae. - It provides an indication of the proportion of dwellings in an area that serve as mosquito breeding sites. *Breteau index* - The **Breteau index** (BI) calculates the number of positive containers per 100 houses inspected. - It reflects the density of breeding containers and is considered a more sensitive indicator of mosquito population density than the House index. *Pupae index* - The **Pupae index** (PI) measures the average number of pupae per person or per house. - This index is highly correlated with adult mosquito density and is considered the most accurate indicator of potential dengue transmission risk.
Question 6: F00 in ICD denotes
- A. mood disorders
- B. organic disorders (Correct Answer)
- C. substance use
- D. psychosis
Explanation: ***Organic disorders - CORRECT*** - **F00-F09** in the **International Classification of Diseases (ICD-10)** Chapter V (Mental and behavioural disorders) specifically denotes **organic, including symptomatic, mental disorders** - These disorders are characterized by brain disease, brain injury, or other insult leading to **cerebral dysfunction** - **F00** specifically refers to **Dementia in Alzheimer's disease** *Mood disorders - Incorrect* - Mood disorders are classified under codes **F30-F39** in ICD-10 - This category includes conditions like bipolar affective disorder, depressive episodes, and recurrent depressive disorders *Substance use - Incorrect* - Mental and behavioral disorders due to psychoactive substance use are classified under codes **F10-F19** in ICD-10 - This section covers disorders resulting from the use of alcohol, opioids, cannabis, sedatives, hypnotics, and other substances *Psychosis - Incorrect* - Specific psychotic disorders like schizophrenia are classified under codes **F20-F29** in ICD-10 - Psychosis can be a symptom of various mental disorders, including some organic conditions
Question 7: Choose the correctly matched pairs regarding the drugs used in schizophrenia: 1. D2 antagonism: Reduces positive symptoms 2. 5HT2A antagonism: Reduces negative symptoms 3. 5HT1A agonism: Weight loss 4. Muscarinic antagonism: Reduces extrapyramidal symptoms
- A. 1,4
- B. 1,2,4
- C. 1,2,3,4
- D. 1,2 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***1,2*** - **D2 antagonism** is the primary mechanism by which antipsychotics reduce **positive symptoms** of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions. - **5HT2A antagonism** is a key mechanism of atypical antipsychotics contributing to the reduction of **negative symptoms** (e.g., apathy, anhedonia, flat affect) and cognitive deficits, while also reducing the risk of extrapyramidal symptoms. *1,2,3,4* - This option is incorrect because **5HT1A agonism** is not associated with **weight loss**. While 5HT1A partial agonism (as seen with aripiprazole and brexpiprazole) may improve negative symptoms, anxiety, and cognitive function, it does not directly cause weight loss. - Additionally, **muscarinic antagonism** does not reduce extrapyramidal symptoms as a primary mechanism. Rather, anticholinergic (muscarinic antagonist) drugs like benztropine are used to **treat** EPS after it occurs. The reduction of EPS in atypical antipsychotics primarily comes from 5HT2A antagonism and lower D2 binding affinity. *1,2,4* - This option is incorrect because **muscarinic antagonism** is not a mechanism that reduces EPS. Anticholinergic agents are used therapeutically to counteract EPS caused by dopamine blockade, but anticholinergic effects themselves do not prevent or reduce EPS. - The reduction of EPS with atypical antipsychotics is mainly due to **5HT2A antagonism** balancing dopaminergic blockade, selective limbic over striatal binding, and fast D2 dissociation kinetics. *1,4* - This option is incorrect because it omits **5HT2A antagonism**, which is crucial for reducing **negative symptoms** in schizophrenia. - It also incorrectly includes muscarinic antagonism as a mechanism that reduces EPS, when in reality anticholinergics are used to treat EPS rather than prevent it.
Question 8: Which of the following statements about atrial fibrillation is correct?
- A. Rarely seen in heart with normal morphology
- B. Discrepancy in pulse rate and heart rate are reliable for diagnosis (Correct Answer)
- C. Cardioversion is used for all cases of atrial fibrillation
- D. Only digoxin used for rate control
Explanation: ***Discrepancy in pulse rate and heart rate are reliable for diagnosis*** - A disparity between the **apical heart rate** (auscultated at the chest) and the **peripheral pulse rate** (palpated at the wrist), known as a **pulse deficit**, is a characteristic sign of **atrial fibrillation**. [1] - This occurs because some ventricular contractions during atrial fibrillation are too weak to produce a palpable peripheral pulse, especially with a rapid, irregular ventricular response. [1] *Rarely seen in heart with normal morphology* - While atrial fibrillation is often associated with structural heart disease, it can occur in individuals without identifiable cardiac abnormalities, known as **lone atrial fibrillation**, especially in younger patients. [1] - Factors like **hypertension**, obesity, and sleep apnea can precipitate atrial fibrillation even in seemingly normal hearts. *Cardioversion is used for all cases of atrial fibrillation* - **Cardioversion** (electrical or pharmacological) is primarily used for **hemodynamically unstable** patients or stable patients for whom a **rhythm control strategy** is desired. [1] - Many patients, particularly those who are asymptomatic or have chronic atrial fibrillation, are managed with a **rate control strategy** and anticoagulation rather than cardioversion. [1] *Only digoxin used for rate control* - While **digoxin** can be used for **rate control** in atrial fibrillation, particularly in patients with heart failure or sedentary lifestyles, it is not the only agent. - **Beta-blockers** (e.g., metoprolol, atenolol) and **calcium channel blockers** (e.g., diltiazem, verapamil) are also commonly used as first-line agents for rate control in atrial fibrillation, especially if the patient tolerates them. [1]
Question 9: Type of schizophrenia with intellectual disability:
- A. Catatonic schizophrenia
- B. Pfropf schizophrenia (Correct Answer)
- C. Paranoid schizophrenia
- D. Hebephrenic schizophrenia
Explanation: ***Pfropf schizophrenia*** - **Pfropf schizophrenia** is a historical term specifically used to describe a form of schizophrenia that develops in individuals with **pre-existing intellectual disability** (formerly termed mental retardation). - The term "Pfropf" is derived from German, meaning "grafted" or "engrafted," referring to schizophrenia being "grafted onto" pre-existing intellectual disability. - This term distinguishes it from other types of schizophrenia where intellectual disability is not a primary defining characteristic. - While this classification is largely historical (modern DSM-5 has removed schizophrenia subtypes), it remains relevant for older examination questions. *Catatonic schizophrenia* - Characterized primarily by prominent **psychomotor disturbances**, which can include stupor, catalepsy, waxy flexibility, mutism, and negativism. - While intellectual disability might coexist, it is not a defining feature of the catatonic subtype itself. *Paranoid schizophrenia* - Marked by the prominence of **delusions**, typically persecutory or grandiose, and **auditory hallucinations**. - Intellectual disability is not a core diagnostic criterion or a defining characteristic of this subtype. *Hebephrenic schizophrenia* - Also known as **disorganized schizophrenia**, this type is characterized by marked **disorganization of thought processes**, flat or inappropriate affect, and bizarre behavior. - While it often presents early and can lead to significant functional impairment, intellectual disability is not a defining feature; rather, the primary disturbance is in thought and emotion.
Question 10: A patient inventing new words is a feature of?
- A. Schizophrenia (Correct Answer)
- B. Aphasia
- C. Neurotic disorders
- D. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)
Explanation: ***Schizophrenia*** - The invention of new words, known as **neologisms**, is a characteristic symptom of **thought disorder** in schizophrenia. - These words often have personal meaning to the patient but are unintelligible to others, reflecting disturbed communication. *Neurotic disorders* - These disorders, such as anxiety and phobias, primarily involve **distress and maladaptive coping mechanisms** but do not typically feature neologisms. - **Thought content** may be ruminative or anxious, but not disorganized to the extent of inventing new words. *Aphasia* - Aphasia is a **language disorder caused by brain damage** (e.g., stroke), resulting in difficulty with language production or comprehension. - While it can involve word-finding difficulties or paraphasias (word substitutions), it is distinctly different from the deliberate invention of new, non-existent words seen in psychosis. *Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)* - OCD is characterized by **recurrent, intrusive thoughts (obsessions)** and repetitive behaviors (compulsions). - It does not involve thought disorganization or the creation of neologisms; language remains structured, though often focused on obsessive themes.
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