Mood Disorders Practice Questions

Q: Exercise is also prescribed as an adjuvant treatment for depression. Most probably, it acts by:

Raising endorphin levels. ### Explanation **Correct Option: C. Raising endorphin levels** Exercise is a well-established adjuvant therapy for mild-to-moderate depression. The primary neurobiological mechanism is the **"Endorphin Hypothesis."** Physical activity triggers the release of endogenous opioids (beta-endorphins) from the pituitary gland and hypothalamus. These endorphins bind to mu-opioid receptors in the brain, leading to an analgesic effect and a sense of euphoria (often called the "runner's high"), which directly counteracts depressive symptoms and improves mood. Additionally, exercise increases levels of Brain-Derived Neurotrophic Factor (BDNF), promoting neuroplasticity in the hippocampus. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **A & B (Pulse pressure and Hemodynamics):** While exercise improves cardiovascular health and systemic circulation, these are physiological adaptations of the autonomic and circulatory systems. They do not have a direct, evidence-based psychoactive effect on the core neurochemical pathology of depression. * **D (Inducing good sleep):** While exercise improves sleep hygiene and circadian rhythms (which is beneficial for depressed patients), it is considered a secondary benefit. The primary, immediate biochemical mechanism for mood elevation during exercise is the surge in neurochemicals like endorphins and monoamines. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **First-line for Mild Depression:** Lifestyle modifications, including exercise and CBT, are often preferred over pharmacotherapy for mild cases. * **Monoamine Hypothesis:** Exercise also increases the availability of Serotonin, Norepinephrine, and Dopamine, mimicking the action of antidepressants. * **Neurogenesis:** Chronic exercise is linked to increased volume in the **hippocampus**, a region often shrunken in chronic MDD. * **Adjuvant Role:** In moderate-to-severe depression, exercise is an *adjuvant* (add-on) to SSRIs/SNRIs, not a replacement.

Q: Flight of ideas is a characteristic symptom of which psychiatric condition?

Mania. **Explanation:** **Flight of Ideas** is a formal thought disorder characterized by a rapid succession of thoughts where the connection between ideas is based on superficial associations, such as **rhyming (clanging)** or **puns**. While the direction of thought shifts frequently, a logical connection can usually still be traced by the listener. 1. **Why Mania is Correct:** Flight of ideas is a hallmark feature of the **Manic Phase of Bipolar Disorder**. It occurs due to "pressure of thought," where the patient’s thinking process is so accelerated that it manifests as rapid, continuous speech (pressure of speech) with frequent shifts in topics. 2. **Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Schizophrenia:** The characteristic thought disorder here is **Loosening of Associations (Knight’s Move thinking)**. Unlike flight of ideas, the transitions between thoughts in schizophrenia are illogical and lack any discernible connection to the listener. * **Depression:** This is typically associated with **Poverty of Ideas** or "Psychomotor Retardation," where thought processes are slowed down (the opposite of mania). * **Delirium:** While speech may be incoherent, the primary deficit is a **clouding of consciousness** and disorientation, rather than a specific pattern of rapid ideation. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Flight of ideas + Pressure of speech = Mania.** * If the connection between ideas is completely lost, it is **Loosening of Associations** (Schizophrenia). * **Clang Association:** Choosing words based on sound rather than meaning; frequently seen alongside flight of ideas. * **Circumstantiality:** The patient includes excessive unnecessary detail but eventually reaches the point (seen in Epilepsy/OCD). * **Tangentiality:** The patient moves away from the topic and never returns to the original point.

Q: Which of the following is NOT typically seen in mania?

Clouding of consciousness. **Explanation:** In psychiatry, **Mania** is characterized by a distinct period of abnormally elevated, expansive, or irritable mood. The core features involve a "speeding up" of mental and physical processes. **Why "Clouding of Consciousness" is the correct answer:** Clouding of consciousness refers to a state of reduced wakefulness, impaired alertness, and disorientation. This is the hallmark of **Delirium (Organic Brain Syndrome)**, not functional psychiatric disorders like Mania. In a typical manic episode, the sensorium remains clear; the patient is fully awake and oriented, even if they are highly distractible or agitated. If clouding of consciousness is present, a clinician must first rule out organic causes (e.g., drug toxicity, metabolic imbalance, or infection). **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Hypersexuality (A):** A common symptom of mania involving increased libido, loss of inhibitions, and sometimes indiscreet sexual behavior. * **Hyperactivity (B):** Manic patients exhibit increased psychomotor activity, often engaging in multiple projects or goal-directed activities without feeling fatigued. * **Decreased Sleep (C):** Specifically, this is a **"decreased need for sleep."** Unlike insomnia (where the patient wants to sleep but can't), a manic patient feels fully rested after only 2–3 hours of sleep. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **DIGFAST Mnemonic for Mania:** **D**istractibility, **I**ndiscretion (excessive involvement in pleasurable activities), **G**randiosity, **F**light of ideas, **A**ctivity increase, **S**leep (decreased need), **T**alkativeness (pressure of speech). * **Delirious Mania:** A rare, severe form of mania where clouding of consciousness *can* occur, but it is an exception rather than a "typical" feature. * **First-line treatment:** Lithium or Valproate (Mood stabilizers) and Atypical Antipsychotics.

Q: Nihilistic ideas are seen in which of the following conditions?

Cotard's syndrome. **Explanation:** **Nihilistic delusions** are the hallmark of **Cotard’s Syndrome**. This is a rare neuropsychiatric condition where a patient holds the delusional belief that they are dead, do not exist, are putrefying, or have lost their internal organs, blood, or soul. It is most commonly associated with **severe psychotic depression**, though it can occur in schizophrenia or organic brain lesions. **Analysis of Options:** * **Cotard’s Syndrome (Correct):** Also known as "Walking Corpse Syndrome," it is characterized by nihilistic delusions ranging from "I have no heart" to "The world has ended." * **Simple Schizophrenia:** Characterized by the insidious development of negative symptoms (apathy, social withdrawal) without prominent hallucinations or delusions. * **Paranoid Schizophrenia:** Typically involves delusions of persecution or grandeur and auditory hallucinations. While nihilistic ideas *can* occur in any psychosis, they are the defining feature of Cotard’s. * **Mania:** Characterized by expansive, elevated mood and delusions of **grandeur** (the opposite of nihilism). **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Cotard’s Syndrome** is often considered a severe form of **Depressive Psychosis**. * **Capgras Syndrome:** The delusion that a familiar person has been replaced by an identical-looking impostor (an "illusion of doubles"). * **Fregoli Syndrome:** The delusion that different people are actually a single person in disguise. * **De Clerambault’s Syndrome (Erotomania):** The delusion that a person (usually of higher status) is in love with the patient. * **Treatment:** For Cotard’s syndrome, **Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)** is often the treatment of choice due to the severity of the underlying depression.

Q: What is the minimum duration of symptoms required to diagnose hypomania?

4 days. ### Explanation The diagnosis of a **Hypomanic Episode** is based on specific duration and severity criteria defined by the DSM-5 and ICD-11. **1. Why Option B (4 days) is correct:** According to DSM-5 criteria, hypomania is defined as a distinct period of abnormally and persistently elevated, expansive, or irritable mood, and abnormally increased activity or energy, lasting **at least 4 consecutive days**. Unlike mania, hypomania is not severe enough to cause marked impairment in social or occupational functioning, does not require hospitalization, and lacks psychotic features. **2. Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Option A (1 day):** This is too short for a clinical diagnosis. While mood can fluctuate daily, a sustained period of 4 days is required to distinguish a pathological state from normal mood variations. * **Option C (1 week):** This is the minimum duration required to diagnose a **Manic Episode**. If symptoms last a week or require hospitalization (regardless of duration), the diagnosis upgrades from hypomania to mania. * **Option D (2 weeks):** This is the minimum duration required for a **Major Depressive Episode (MDE)** or Dysthymia (which requires 2 years in adults). **3. High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Bipolar II vs. Bipolar I:** Bipolar II requires at least one Hypomanic Episode AND at least one Major Depressive Episode. If a patient has even one Manic Episode in their life, the diagnosis is Bipolar I. * **Cyclothymia:** Requires at least **2 years** (1 year in children) of hypomanic and depressive symptoms that do not meet full criteria for an episode. * **Key Distinction:** The presence of **psychotic features** (hallucinations/delusions) automatically classifies the episode as **Mania**, regardless of the duration. Hypomania never includes psychosis.

Q: The technique of Psychological autopsy is useful in studying the causation of?

Suicide. **Explanation:** **Psychological Autopsy** is a retrospective investigative strategy used to understand the psychological state of a person prior to their death. It is the most powerful tool available for studying the risk factors and causation of **Suicide (Option D)**. ### Why Suicide is the Correct Answer: Since the individual is deceased, clinicians cannot perform a direct mental status examination. Instead, they conduct extensive interviews with family members, friends, and healthcare providers, and review personal documents (diaries, social media, medical records). The goal is to reconstruct the deceased's mental state, identify undiagnosed psychiatric illnesses (most commonly Depression), and understand the stressors or "proximal triggers" that led to the act of suicide. ### Why Other Options are Incorrect: * **Schizophrenia (Option A) & Personality Disorders (Option B):** These are chronic conditions diagnosed through direct clinical observation and longitudinal history of a living patient. While psychological autopsy might reveal these diagnoses post-mortem, the technique is specifically designed to investigate the *cause of death*, not to serve as a primary diagnostic tool for these disorders. * **Drug Dependence (Option C):** While substance abuse is a major risk factor for suicide, the term "Psychological Autopsy" is specifically synonymous with the study of completed suicides rather than the etiology of addiction itself. ### NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls: * **Origin:** The term was coined by **Edwin Shneidman** (the father of modern Suicidology). * **Most Common Finding:** Psychological autopsies reveal that over **90%** of people who commit suicide had a diagnosable mental disorder at the time of death (Mood disorders being the most frequent). * **Key Utility:** It helps in legal cases (equivocal deaths) to determine if a death was accidental, homicidal, or suicidal.

Q: Suicidal tendencies are most commonly seen in which of the following?

Severe depression. **Explanation:** The correct answer is **Severe depression**. In psychiatry, while many factors contribute to suicidal risk, the presence of a psychiatric disorder is the strongest predictor. Among these, **Major Depressive Disorder (MDD)**, particularly when severe, carries the highest correlation with suicidal ideation and completed suicide. Patients with severe depression often experience profound hopelessness, psychomotor agitation, or "command hallucinations," all of which significantly elevate the immediate risk of self-harm. **Analysis of Options:** * **Females (Incorrect):** While females have higher rates of suicide **attempts** (parasueicide), males are more likely to **complete** suicide (the "gender paradox"). Therefore, gender alone is not the most common denominator compared to the severity of the underlying illness. * **Younger age (Incorrect):** Suicide is a leading cause of death in youth; however, statistically, the risk of completed suicide increases with **advancing age** (especially in men >65 years). * **All of the above (Incorrect):** Since the demographic factors (female gender and younger age) do not consistently correlate with the highest risk of completed suicide compared to clinical severity, this option is incorrect. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Single best predictor of future suicide:** A previous history of suicide attempts. * **The "Danger Zone":** Risk of suicide often increases shortly after starting antidepressants or during the early recovery phase of depression, as the patient gains the physical energy (improved psychomotor retardation) to act on persistent suicidal thoughts. * **Protective Factor:** Being married or having young children are significant protective factors against suicide.

Question 1

Exercise is also prescribed as an adjuvant treatment for depression. Most probably, it acts by:

Accepted Answer

Raising endorphin levels

Answer

Increasing pulse pressure

Answer

Improving hemodynamics

Answer

Inducing good sleep

Question 2

A 52-year-old man presents with a 2-month history of depression, poor sleep, a 5 kg weight loss over 6 weeks, anergia, and anhedonia. Over the past 4 weeks, he has begun to hear the voice of his deceased father telling him he is a failure and has developed a preoccupation that his organs are rotting away. Which of the following statements is true?

Accepted Answer

The patient is likely suffering from a factitious disorder with psychological symptoms.

Answer

The patient should be started on an SSRI and an antipsychotic.

Answer

The patient is experiencing an acute schizophrenic episode.

Answer

The patient is likely abusing alcohol.

Question 3

A 20-year-old man presents with increased alcohol consumption and sexual indulgence, irritability, lack of sleep, and not feeling fatigued even on prolonged periods of activity. These changes have been present for 3 weeks. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Mania

Answer

Alcohol dependence

Answer

Schizophrenia

Answer

Impulsive control disorder

Question 4

Flight of ideas is a characteristic symptom of which psychiatric condition?

Accepted Answer

Mania

Answer

Schizophrenia

Answer

Depression

Answer

Delirium

Question 5

Which of the following is NOT typically seen in mania?

Accepted Answer

Clouding of consciousness

Answer

Hypersexuality

Answer

Hyperactivity

Answer

Decreased sleep

Question 6

Nihilistic ideas are seen in which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

Cotard's syndrome

Answer

Simple schizophrenia

Answer

Paranoid schizophrenia

Answer

Mania

Question 7

What is the minimum duration of symptoms required to diagnose hypomania?

Accepted Answer

4 days

Answer

1 day

Answer

1 week

Answer

2 weeks

Question 8

The technique of Psychological autopsy is useful in studying the causation of?

Accepted Answer

Suicide

Answer

Schizophrenia

Answer

Personality disorders

Answer

Drug dependence

Question 9

A 72-year-old male has lost 10 kg in the last 3 months. He experiences profound guilt for past mistakes and sleeps no more than 4 hours per day. What is the probable diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Dysthymia

Answer

Schizophrenia

Answer

Involutional melancholia

Answer

Anhedonia

Question 10

Suicidal tendencies are most commonly seen in which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Severe depression

Answer

Females

Answer

Younger age

Answer

All of the above

Mood Disorders — MCQs

Mood Disorders — MCQs

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