Endocrine Pharmacology — MCQs

A 22-year-old female, Neeta presented to you with complaints of a headache and vomiting for 2 months. She is having amenorrhea but the urine pregnancy test is negative. She also complained of secretion of milk from the breasts. A provisional diagnosis of hyperprolactinemia was made and MRI was suggested. MRI confirmed the presence of a large pituitary adenoma. Neeta was advised surgery, however, she is not willing to undergo surgery. Which of the following medications is most likely to be prescribed?

Q685

Which of the following drugs can decrease the size of the prostate?

Q686

A diabetic patient presented with uncontrolled blood sugar level. He has history of pancreatitis and family history of urinary bladder carcinoma. He does not want to take injectable drugs. Which of the following drug can be added to control his blood sugar?

Q687

Which drug reduces postprandial hyperglycemia in type 2 diabetes?

Q688

Continuous GnRH therapy is used in All EXCEPT.

Q689

A 55-year-old patient presents to the clinic with a history of hyperglycemia and has had positive urine glucose tests on 2 separate occasions in the last six months. The patient has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. The physician is considering various medications to manage the patient’s condition and prevent potential complications including renal involvement. Which of the following drugs will not delay renal involvement?

Q690

Which of the following anti-diabetic drugs is associated with increased risk of UTI?

Endocrine Pharmacology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 681: Wrong statement about SGLT (sodium-glucose linked transporter):

A. SGLT2 inhibitors worsen heart failure (Correct Answer)
B. SGLT2 inhibitors produce weight loss
C. SGLT1 is present in the intestine and kidneys
D. SGLT1 has low capacity and high affinity

Explanation: ***SGLT2 inhibitors worsen heart failure*** - This statement is incorrect because **SGLT2 inhibitors** have been shown to **improve outcomes in heart failure**, reducing hospitalizations and cardiovascular mortality, even in patients without diabetes. - Their beneficial effects in heart failure are attributed to mechanisms such as **osmotic diuresis**, natriuresis, improved cardiac energetics, and reduced preload and afterload. - Landmark trials like **DAPA-HF** and **EMPEROR-Reduced** demonstrated significant benefits in heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF). *SGLT2 inhibitors produce weight loss* - **SGLT2 inhibitors** cause **glucosuria** (excretion of glucose in the urine), leading to a loss of calories and subsequent modest weight loss (2-3 kg). - This effect is a common and beneficial side effect, contributing to improved metabolic profiles in patients with type 2 diabetes. *SGLT1 is present in the intestine and kidneys* - **SGLT1** is the primary transporter responsible for glucose absorption in the **small intestine** and is also found in the **kidneys' S3 segment** of the proximal tubule. - In the kidneys, it plays a minor role in glucose reabsorption compared to SGLT2, but it is critical for dietary glucose absorption. *SGLT1 has low capacity and high affinity* - **SGLT1** is characterized by its **high affinity** for glucose (Km ~0.4 mM), allowing it to efficiently reabsorb glucose even at low concentrations. - However, it has a **lower capacity** compared to SGLT2, meaning it reabsorbs a smaller absolute amount of glucose despite its strong binding.

Question 682: What is the first-line drug for post-menopausal osteoporosis?

A. Raloxifene
B. Calcitonin
C. Bisphosphonates (Correct Answer)
D. Oestrogen

Explanation: **Bisphosphonates** - **Bisphosphonates** are the **first-line therapy** for postmenopausal osteoporosis due to their proven efficacy in reducing the risk of fragility fractures. - They work by **inhibiting osteoclast activity**, thereby reducing bone resorption and increasing bone mineral density. *Raloxifene* - **Raloxifene** is a **selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM)** that can be used for osteoporosis prevention and treatment, but it is typically a second-line option, especially in women who cannot tolerate bisphosphonates or have an increased risk of breast cancer. - While it has a positive effect on bone density, its fracture-reduction efficacy is not as broad as bisphosphonates (e.g., it reduces vertebral fractures but has less consistent data on non-vertebral fractures). *Calcitonin* - **Calcitonin** is generally reserved for patients who cannot tolerate other therapies or for short-term use in acute vertebral fractures to help with pain relief. - Its efficacy in reducing fracture risk is **less robust** compared to bisphosphonates, and it is not considered a first-line agent. *Oestrogen* - **Estrogen (hormone replacement therapy)** was once a primary treatment but is now generally not recommended as first-line for osteoporosis due to concerns about increased risks of breast cancer, cardiovascular events, and stroke, particularly in older women. - It is typically reserved for women with significant menopausal symptoms for whom other therapies are contraindicated or ineffective, and for the shortest duration possible.

Question 683: Drug of choice for post menopausal osteoporosis is

A. Bisphosphonates (Correct Answer)
B. Estrogen
C. Thyroxine
D. Teriparatide

Explanation: ***Bisphosphonates*** - **Bisphosphonates** are considered the **first-line therapy** for established postmenopausal osteoporosis due to their proven efficacy in reducing the risk of vertebral and non-vertebral fractures. - They work by **inhibiting osteoclast activity**, thereby decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone mineral density. *Estrogen* - While **estrogen therapy** can prevent osteoporosis, it is generally not the first-line treatment due to potential risks like increased risk of **breast cancer**, **stroke**, and **venous thromboembolism**. - It is typically reserved for women with severe menopausal symptoms who also require osteoporosis prevention, and often used at the **lowest effective dose for the shortest duration**. *Thyroxine* - **Thyroxine** is a hormone used primarily to treat **hypothyroidism**, a condition where the thyroid gland doesn't produce enough thyroid hormone. - It is **not indicated for the treatment of osteoporosis** and can even worsen bone loss if given in excessive doses, leading to iatrogenic hyperthyroidism. *Teriparatide* - **Teriparatide** is an **anabolic agent** that stimulates new bone formation, making it a powerful option for severe osteoporosis or those who have failed other therapies. - However, it is an injectable medication with a **limited treatment duration** (typically 2 years) and is generally reserved for patients with a **high fracture risk** rather than being the initial drug of choice for all postmenopausal osteoporosis.

Question 684: A 22-year-old female, Neeta presented to you with complaints of a headache and vomiting for 2 months. She is having amenorrhea but the urine pregnancy test is negative. She also complained of secretion of milk from the breasts. A provisional diagnosis of hyperprolactinemia was made and MRI was suggested. MRI confirmed the presence of a large pituitary adenoma. Neeta was advised surgery, however, she is not willing to undergo surgery. Which of the following medications is most likely to be prescribed?

A. Ergotamine
B. Bromocriptine (Correct Answer)
C. Sumatriptan
D. Allopurinol

Explanation: ***Bromocriptine*** - **Bromocriptine** is a **dopamine agonist** that directly inhibits prolactin secretion from the pituitary gland and can shrink **prolactinomas**. - It is the **first-line medical treatment** for hyperprolactinemia, particularly when surgery is refused or contraindicated. *Ergotamine* - **Ergotamine** is used to treat **migraine headaches** by constricting blood vessels in the brain. - It does not have a primary role in managing pituitary adenomas or hyperprolactinemia. *Sumatriptan* - **Sumatriptan** is a **serotonin receptor agonist** used for the acute treatment of migraine and cluster headaches. - It does not affect prolactin levels or the size of pituitary adenomas. *Allopurinol* - **Allopurinol** is a **xanthine oxidase inhibitor** used to treat **gout** and prevent uric acid kidney stones. - It is unrelated to hyperprolactinemia or pituitary adenomas.

Question 685: Which of the following drugs can decrease the size of the prostate?

A. Sildenafil
B. Tamsulosin
C. Finasteride (Correct Answer)
D. Prazosin

Explanation: ***Finasteride***- **Finasteride** is a **5-alpha-reductase inhibitor** that blocks the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT), thereby reducing the size of the prostate. [1]- **DHT** is primarily responsible for the growth and enlargement of the prostate gland in benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH).*Sildenafil*- **Sildenafil** is a **phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE5) inhibitor** used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension.- It acts by increasing blood flow to the penis and does not affect prostate size.*Tamsulosin*- **Tamsulosin** is an **alpha-1 adrenergic antagonist** that relaxes smooth muscles in the prostate and bladder neck, improving urine flow.- While it alleviates symptoms of BPH, it does not reduce the actual size of the prostate gland. [2]*Prazosin*- **Prazosin** is also an **alpha-1 adrenergic antagonist** used to treat hypertension and, off-label, BPH symptoms by relaxing smooth muscles.- Similar to tamsulosin, it improves urine flow but does not decrease prostate volume. [2]

Question 686: A diabetic patient presented with uncontrolled blood sugar level. He has history of pancreatitis and family history of urinary bladder carcinoma. He does not want to take injectable drugs. Which of the following drug can be added to control his blood sugar?

A. Canagliflozin
B. Pioglitazone
C. Sitagliptin (Correct Answer)
D. Liraglutide

Explanation: ***Sitagliptin*** - Sitagliptin is a **DPP-4 inhibitor** that enhances endogenous incretin hormones, leading to glucose-dependent insulin secretion without causing weight gain. - It is **safe in patients with history of pancreatitis** and has **no association with bladder cancer risk**. - It is an **oral medication**, which aligns with the patient's preference to avoid injectable drugs. - This is the **most appropriate choice** given all the patient's contraindications and preferences. *Canagliflozin* - Canagliflozin is an **SGLT2 inhibitor** that increases glucose excretion in the urine and provides cardiovascular and renal benefits. - It is **oral** and **safe in pancreatitis** with **no bladder cancer association**. - However, it is not the best first choice compared to DPP-4 inhibitors in this clinical scenario, though it would be an acceptable alternative. *Pioglitazone* - Pioglitazone is a **thiazolidinedione** that improves insulin sensitivity but is associated with an **increased risk of bladder carcinoma**. - It is **contraindicated in this patient** due to his family history of urinary bladder carcinoma. - It can also cause weight gain and fluid retention. *Liraglutide* - Liraglutide is a **GLP-1 receptor agonist** that is highly effective for glycemic control and weight loss [2]. - However, it is an **injectable drug** [1], which goes against the patient's preference. - Additionally, **GLP-1 agonists are relatively contraindicated in patients with history of pancreatitis** due to risk of pancreatitis exacerbation [1], [2].

Question 687: Which drug reduces postprandial hyperglycemia in type 2 diabetes?

A. Pioglitazone
B. Acarbose (Correct Answer)
C. Glyburide
D. Metformin

Explanation: ***Acarbose*** - **Acarbose** is an **alpha-glucosidase inhibitor** that works by delaying the digestion and absorption of carbohydrates in the gut. - This delay in carbohydrate absorption directly reduces the postprandial (after-meal) rise in blood glucose levels. *Pioglitazone* - **Pioglitazone** is a **thiazolidinedione** that improves insulin sensitivity primarily in muscle and adipose tissue. - While it lowers overall blood glucose, its main effect is not specifically on postprandial hyperglycemia. *Glyburide* - **Glyburide** is a **sulfonylurea** that stimulates the pancreas to release more insulin. - It lowers blood glucose by increasing insulin secretion, which impacts both fasting and postprandial levels, but its primary action isn't specific to rapid postprandial peaks. *Metformin* - **Metformin** is a **biguanide** that primarily reduces hepatic glucose production and improves insulin sensitivity in peripheral tissues. - While it lowers both fasting and postprandial glucose, its main mechanism is not directly targeting the immediate digestion of carbohydrates after a meal.

Question 688: Continuous GnRH therapy is used in All EXCEPT.

A. Precocious puberty
B. Prostate cancer
C. Male infertility (Correct Answer)
D. Endometriosis

Explanation: ***Male infertility*** - **Pulsatile GnRH therapy** is used to stimulate gonadotropin secretion and subsequent testosterone production in hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, which can cause male infertility. - **Continuous GnRH therapy** causes downregulation of GnRH receptors leading to suppression of gonadotropin release, which would worsen male infertility. *Precocious puberty* - Continuous GnRH therapy (GnRH agonists) is used to suppress the **pituitary-gonadal axis**, effectively stopping the progression of precocious puberty. - By continuously stimulating GnRH receptors, it leads to their **desensitization and downregulation**, preventing the pulsatile release of LH and FSH. *Prostate cancer* - Continuous GnRH therapy (GnRH agonists) is used for **androgen deprivation therapy**, suppressing testosterone production, which fuels prostate cancer growth. - This effectively creates a chemical castration effect by **downregulating GnRH receptors** on pituitary gonadotrophs. *Endometriosis* - Continuous GnRH therapy (GnRH agonists) is used to induce a **hypoestrogenic state**, which helps shrink endometrial implants. - By continuously stimulating GnRH receptors, it leads to their **desensitization and downregulation**, reducing estrogen production from the ovaries.

Question 689: A 55-year-old patient presents to the clinic with a history of hyperglycemia and has had positive urine glucose tests on 2 separate occasions in the last six months. The patient has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. The physician is considering various medications to manage the patient’s condition and prevent potential complications including renal involvement. Which of the following drugs will not delay renal involvement?

A. Hydrochlorothiazide (Correct Answer)
B. Angiotensin receptor blockers
C. Finerenone
D. SGLT2 inhibitors

Explanation: ***Hydrochlorothiazide*** - **Hydrochlorothiazide** is a thiazide diuretic primarily used for hypertension and edema, and it does not have direct renal protective effects in the context of diabetic nephropathy; it may even worsen glycemic control. - While it lowers blood pressure, its mechanism of action does not address the underlying **glomerular hyperfiltration** or inflammation that contribute to diabetic renal damage. *Angiotensin receptor blockers* - **Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)**, such as losartan or valsartan, are renoprotective as they reduce **intraglomerular pressure** and decrease proteinuria by blocking the effects of angiotensin II. - They are a cornerstone in managing **diabetic nephropathy** and are known to slow the progression of renal disease. *Finerenone* - **Finerenone** is a selective, non-steroidal mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist that has been shown to reduce the risk of kidney disease progression and cardiovascular events in patients with chronic kidney disease and type 2 diabetes. - It works by blocking the harmful effects of **aldosterone**, including inflammation and fibrosis, which contribute to renal damage. *SGLT2 inhibitors* - **SGLT2 inhibitors**, like empagliflozin or canagliflozin, reduce glucose reabsorption in the kidneys, leading to glucose excretion in the urine, and have demonstrated significant **renoprotective benefits** independent of their glucose-lowering effects. - Their mechanisms involve reducing **glomerular hyperfiltration**, decreasing proteinuria, and mitigating inflammation and fibrosis, thereby delaying the progression of diabetic kidney disease.

Question 690: Which of the following anti-diabetic drugs is associated with increased risk of UTI?

A. Dapagliflozin (Correct Answer)
B. Pioglitazone
C. Metformin
D. Sitagliptin

Explanation: ***Dapagliflozin*** - **Dapagliflozin** is a **sodium-glucose cotransporter-2 (SGLT2) inhibitor** that works by increasing glucose excretion in the urine. - This increased urinary glucose provides a favorable environment for bacterial growth, leading to a higher risk of **urinary tract infections (UTIs)** and **genital mycotic infections**. *Pioglitazone* - **Pioglitazone** is a **thiazolidinedione** that improves insulin sensitivity in peripheral tissues. - Its primary side effects include **fluid retention**, **weight gain**, and increased risk of **bone fractures** and **heart failure**, not UTIs. *Metformin* - **Metformin** is a **biguanide** that reduces hepatic glucose production and improves insulin sensitivity. - Its most common side effects are **gastrointestinal disturbances** like nausea, diarrhea, and abdominal pain, and it does not typically increase the risk of UTIs. *Sitagliptin* - **Sitagliptin** is a **dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitor** that enhances endogenous incretin hormones, leading to increased insulin release and reduced glucagon secretion. - It is generally well-tolerated, with side effects that can include **nasopharyngitis** and headache, but it is not associated with an increased risk of UTIs.

Practice by Chapter

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Hormonal Contraceptives

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