Antimicrobial Agents Practice Questions

Q: What is the recommended dosage for chloroquine chemoprophylaxis in malaria prevention?

500 mg once weekly. ***500 mg once weekly*** - The recommended dosage for chloroquine chemoprophylaxis in malaria prevention is **500 mg salt** (or equivalent to 300 mg base) administered **once weekly**. - This regimen ensures adequate blood concentrations to prevent malarial infection in endemic areas. *500 mg/week* - While the 500 mg dose is correct, simply stating "500 mg/week" without specifying "once weekly" could be misinterpreted. - Chloroquine is generally taken as a **single weekly dose**, not divided doses. *400 mg once weekly* - A dosage of **400 mg** is **sub-therapeutic** for weekly chloroquine chemoprophylaxis. - This dose would likely not provide sufficient protection against malaria. *500 mg BD/week* - Taking chloroquine **twice weekly (BD/week)** at 500 mg is excessive for chemoprophylaxis. - This regimen can lead to increased side effects and toxicity without providing additional prophylactic benefit.

Q: All are true about ciprofloxacin except?

More active at acidic pH. ***More active at acidic pH*** - Fluoroquinolones, including ciprofloxacin, exhibit **reduced antibacterial activity in acidic environments**. Their efficacy is generally better at **neutral or alkaline pH**. - This is clinically relevant as fluoroquinolones may have **reduced effectiveness in acidic sites** like the stomach or acidic urine. - The optimal antibacterial activity occurs at physiological or slightly alkaline pH. *DNA gyrase inhibition* - Ciprofloxacin, like other fluoroquinolones, exerts its antibacterial effect by inhibiting **bacterial DNA gyrase (topoisomerase II)** and **topoisomerase IV**. - This inhibition prevents DNA replication and repair, leading to bacterial cell death. *Contraindicated in pregnancy* - Ciprofloxacin is generally **contraindicated in pregnancy** due to concerns about potential harm to the developing fetus, particularly effects on **cartilage development**. - However, it may be used in specific, life-threatening situations if the benefit outweighs the potential risk. *Second generation fluoroquinolone* - Ciprofloxacin is classified as a **second-generation fluoroquinolone**. - This class includes agents with improved activity against Gram-negative bacteria and some atypical organisms.

Q: What is the mechanism of action of quinolones?

Inhibit DNA gyrase. ***Inhibit DNA gyrase*** - Quinolones, particularly **fluoroquinolones**, exert their bactericidal effect by targeting **bacterial DNA gyrase (topoisomerase II)** and **topoisomerase IV**. - This inhibition prevents the uncoiling and replication of bacterial DNA, leading to cell death. *Bind to 30S ribosomal subunit* - This mechanism is characteristic of **aminoglycosides** and **tetracyclines**, which disrupt bacterial protein synthesis. - Quinolones do not interfere with ribosomal function but rather with **DNA replication**. *Bind to bacterial cell membrane* - This is the mechanism of action for **polymyxins** and **daptomycin**, which disrupt the integrity of the bacterial cell membrane. - Quinolones specifically target **intracellular enzymes** involved in DNA handling. *Inhibit tetrahydrofolate reductase* - This enzyme name in the option is technically imprecise; **trimethoprim** actually inhibits **dihydrofolate reductase**, which is part of the **sulfonamide-trimethoprim (Bactrim)** combination. - This pathway is involved in **folic acid synthesis**, crucial for bacterial DNA and RNA production, a mechanism distinct from quinolones.

Q: Which of the following is not used as treatment for lymphatic filariasis -

Praziquantel. ***Praziquantel*** - **Praziquantel** is primarily an **anthelmintic drug** effective against **schistosomiasis** and **tapeworm infections**. - It does not have a significant role in the treatment of **lymphatic filariasis**. *Ivermectin* - **Ivermectin** is one of the **mainstays** of treatment for **lymphatic filariasis**, particularly in combination therapies. - It works by paralyzing and killing **microfilariae**, reducing their numbers in the bloodstream. *DEC* - **Diethylcarbamazine (DEC)** is a **highly effective antifilarial drug** used to kill both **microfilariae** and **adult worms** in lymphatic filariasis. - It is often used in mass drug administration programs and for individual treatment. *Albendazole* - **Albendazole** is an **anthelmintic drug** often used in combination with **Ivermectin** or **DEC** for the treatment of **lymphatic filariasis**. - It helps to kill **microfilariae** and has some macrofilaricidal effects, reducing the viability of adult worms.

Q: Which of the following drugs does not inhibit bacterial protein synthesis?

Sulfonamides. ***Sulfonamides*** - Sulfonamides do **NOT** inhibit bacterial protein synthesis; instead, they inhibit **folic acid synthesis**. - They act as **competitive inhibitors** of dihydropteroate synthase, an enzyme involved in the synthesis of dihydrofolic acid. - Folic acid is essential for nucleotide synthesis and DNA replication, making sulfonamides bacteriostatic agents that work through a completely different mechanism than protein synthesis inhibitors. *Aminoglycosides* - Aminoglycosides bind to the **30S ribosomal subunit**, causing misreading of mRNA and premature termination of protein synthesis. - This leads to the production of **abnormal and non-functional proteins**, ultimately killing the bacterial cell. *Chloramphenicol* - Chloramphenicol binds to the **50S ribosomal subunit**, thereby inhibiting the peptidyl transferase enzyme. - This prevents the formation of **peptide bonds** between amino acids, effectively blocking protein elongation. *Clindamycin* - Clindamycin also binds to the **50S ribosomal subunit**, specifically at the P-site. - It interferes with the **translocation step** of protein synthesis, preventing ribosomal movement along the mRNA.

Q: Which antibiotic is primarily associated with Red man syndrome?

Vancomycin. **Vancomycin** - **Red man syndrome** is a well-known **infusion-related reaction** primarily associated with vancomycin. - It occurs due to the **rapid infusion** of vancomycin, leading to non-immunologic **mast cell degranulation** and histamine release. - Characterized by flushing, pruritus, and erythema of the upper body and face. - **Prevention:** Slow infusion rate (over 60 minutes or longer) and/or premedication with antihistamines. *Polymyxin B* - Polymyxin B is associated with **nephrotoxicity** and **neurotoxicity**, not typically with Red man syndrome. - It can cause **histamine release** leading to flushing and itching, but this is less common and less severe than with vancomycin. *Rifampicin* - Rifampicin is primarily known for causing **orange-red discoloration** of bodily fluids (e.g., urine, tears, sweat) and can cause **hepatotoxicity**, but not Red man syndrome. - It works by inhibiting bacterial **RNA synthesis** and is used to treat tuberculosis and other mycobacterial infections. *Teicoplanin* - Teicoplanin is a **glycopeptide antibiotic** similar to vancomycin, but it has a **significantly lower incidence** of Red man syndrome. - While it can cause some **infusion-related reactions**, they are generally milder and less frequent compared to vancomycin.

Q: Which sulphonamide has the longest acting duration?

Sulphadoxine. ***Sulphadoxine*** - **Sulphadoxine** is known for its **exceptionally long elimination half-life**, which is due to its high plasma protein binding and slow renal excretion. - This property allows for **once-weekly dosing**, making it one of the longest-acting sulfonamides, often used in combinations for malaria prophylaxis or treatment. *Sulfadiazine* - **Sulfadiazine** has an intermediate half-life, typically requiring **multiple daily doses**. - It is commonly used for infections like **toxoplasmosis** and **nocardiosis**. *Sulfamethoxazole* - **Sulfamethoxazole** has an intermediate half-life, usually requiring **twice-daily administration**. - It is most famously co-formulated with **trimethoprim** (as co-trimoxazole) for a broad range of bacterial infections. *Sulfamethiazole* - **Sulfamethiazole** is a **short-acting sulfanilamide derivative** with a rapid elimination, meaning it would require frequent dosing. - It is not commonly used systemically due to its short duration of action.

Q: Which of the following is a guanosine analogue?

Abacavir. ***Abacavir*** - **Abacavir** is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI) used in HIV treatment. - It is a **carbocyclic analogue of guanosine** (specifically, a 2'-deoxyguanosine analogue). - Structurally, it contains a modified cyclopentane ring instead of the ribose sugar, but retains the guanine base, making it a guanosine analogue. *Acyclovir* - **Acyclovir** is also a **guanosine analogue** - specifically an acyclic guanosine analogue. - It is an antiviral drug used to treat herpes simplex virus (HSV) and varicella-zoster virus (VZV) infections. - Note: Both Abacavir and Acyclovir are technically guanosine analogues; in this PYQ context, Abacavir is the expected answer. *Bromodeoxyuridine* - **Bromodeoxyuridine** is a **pyrimidine analogue**, specifically a thymidine analogue. - It is incorporated into DNA during replication and is used in research and as a radiosensitizer. *Allopurinol* - **Allopurinol** is a purine analogue (hypoxanthine analogue) that inhibits xanthine oxidase. - It is primarily used to treat **gout** and prevent kidney stones by reducing uric acid production. - While it's a purine derivative, it is not specifically a guanosine analogue.

Q: A postoperative patient developed septicemia and was empirically started on combination chemotherapy by a new resident doctor. However, when the patient did not respond even after 10 days of antibiotic treatment, the review of the charts was done. It was found that the resident doctor had started the combination of antibiotics that was mutually antagonistic in action. Which of the following is the most likely combination that was given?

Ampicillin and Chloramphenicol. ***Ampicillin and Chloramphenicol*** - **Ampicillin** is a **bactericidal** antibiotic that inhibits cell wall synthesis, while **chloramphenicol** is **bacteriostatic** and inhibits protein synthesis. - When combined, the bacteriostatic action of chloramphenicol can antagonize the antimicrobial effect of ampicillin, particularly in infections where rapid bacterial killing is crucial. *Vancomycin and Amikacin* - **Vancomycin** is **bactericidal** (cell wall synthesis inhibitor), and **amikacin** is also **bactericidal** (aminoglycoside, protein synthesis inhibitor). - This combination is generally considered synergistic or additive, especially against gram-positive organisms and certain gram-negative bacteria, rather than antagonistic. *Cephalexin and Gentamicin* - Both **cephalexin** (a cephalosporin) and **gentamicin** (an aminoglycoside) are **bactericidal** antibiotics. - This combination can be synergistic, particularly against gram-negative bacteria, by targeting different bacterial processes (cell wall synthesis and protein synthesis, respectively). *Ciprofloxacin and Piperacillin* - **Ciprofloxacin** (a fluoroquinolone) and **piperacillin** (a penicillin) are both **bactericidal** antibiotics. - This combination is often used empirically to broaden coverage against a wide range of bacteria, exhibiting additive or synergistic effects, and is not typically antagonistic.

Question 1

What is the recommended dosage for chloroquine chemoprophylaxis in malaria prevention?

Accepted Answer

500 mg once weekly

Answer

500 mg/week

Answer

400 mg once weekly

Answer

500 mg BD/week

Question 2

All are true about ciprofloxacin except?

Accepted Answer

More active at acidic pH

Answer

DNA gyrase inhibition

Answer

Contraindicated in pregnancy

Answer

Second generation fluoroquinolone

Question 3

What is the mechanism of action of quinolones?

Accepted Answer

Inhibit DNA gyrase

Answer

Inhibit tetrahydrofolate reductase

Answer

Bind to 30S ribosomal subunit

Answer

Bind to bacterial cell membrane

Question 4

Which of the following is not used as treatment for lymphatic filariasis -

Accepted Answer

Praziquantel

Answer

DEC

Answer

Albendazole

Answer

Ivermectin

Question 5

Which of the following drugs does not inhibit bacterial protein synthesis?

Accepted Answer

Sulfonamides

Answer

Aminoglycosides

Answer

Chloramphenicol

Answer

Clindamycin

Question 6

Which antibiotic is primarily associated with Red man syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Vancomycin

Answer

Polymyxin B

Answer

Rifampicin

Answer

Teicoplanin

Question 7

Which sulphonamide has the longest acting duration?

Accepted Answer

Sulphadoxine

Answer

Sulfadiazine

Answer

Sulfamethoxazole

Answer

Sulfamethiazole

Question 8

Which of the following is a guanosine analogue?

Accepted Answer

Abacavir

Answer

Bromodeoxyuridine

Answer

Allopurinol

Answer

Acyclovir

Question 9

Which of the following statements about the biodisposition of penicillins and cephalosporins is NOT accurate?

Accepted Answer

Renal tubular reabsorption of beta-lactams is inhibited by probenecid

Answer

Procaine penicillin G is used for intramuscular injection

Answer

Nafcillin and ceftriaxone are eliminated mainly by biliary secretion

Answer

Oral bioavailability is affected by lability to gastric acid

Question 10

A postoperative patient developed septicemia and was empirically started on combination chemotherapy by a new resident doctor. However, when the patient did not respond even after 10 days of antibiotic treatment, the review of the charts was done. It was found that the resident doctor had started the combination of antibiotics that was mutually antagonistic in action. Which of the following is the most likely combination that was given?

Accepted Answer

Ampicillin and Chloramphenicol

Answer

Vancomycin and Amikacin

Answer

Cephalexin and Gentamicin

Answer

Ciprofloxacin and Piperacillin

Antimicrobial Agents — MCQs

Antimicrobial Agents — MCQs

On this page

Practice by Chapter

Want unlimited practice?