Anticancer Drugs — MCQs
On this page
Encorafenib was approved by FDA recently for which condition?
Coasting effect is seen with which of the following agents?
Denileukin diftitox binds to which interleukin?
Which of the following anticancer drugs is least likely to cause nausea and vomiting?
Bleomycin toxicity is characterized by hyperplasia of which of the following cells?
Which of the following is a monoclonal antibody against PD-L1?
What is the standard chemotherapy regimen for metastatic testicular carcinoma?
All of the following are monoclonal antibodies against CD-20 except?
Which of the following conditions is NOT treated with ibrutinib?
Which drug can be used in a patient with CML and a T315i mutation?
Anticancer Drugs Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 201: Encorafenib was approved by FDA recently for which condition?
- A. Prostate cancer
- B. Melanoma (Correct Answer)
- C. Smallpox
- D. Chickenpox
Explanation: **Explanation:** **Encorafenib** is a potent, small-molecule **BRAF inhibitor** (specifically targeting the V600E mutation). It works by inhibiting the MAP kinase pathway (RAS-RAF-MEK-ERK), which is constitutively active in many cancers, leading to uncontrolled cell proliferation. 1. **Why Melanoma is correct:** Encorafenib was FDA-approved (in combination with Binimetinib, a MEK inhibitor) for the treatment of patients with **unresectable or metastatic melanoma** harboring the **BRAF V600E or V600K mutations**. Combining a BRAF inhibitor (Encorafenib) with a MEK inhibitor (Binimetinib) is the standard of care to delay the development of drug resistance and reduce skin-related toxicities (like squamous cell carcinomas) seen with BRAF monotherapy. 2. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Prostate Cancer:** Managed primarily with hormonal therapy (GnRH analogs like Leuprolide, anti-androgens like Enzalutamide) or taxanes (Docetaxel). * **Smallpox and Chickenpox:** These are viral infections. Smallpox is treated with antivirals like **Tecovirimat**, while Chickenpox (VZV) is managed with **Acyclovir**. Encorafenib has no antiviral properties. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **The "BEACON" Regimen:** Encorafenib is also approved (in combination with Cetuximab) for **Metastatic Colorectal Cancer** with BRAF V600E mutations. * **Mechanism:** It has a longer dissociation half-life (>30 hours) compared to other BRAF inhibitors like Vemurafenib or Dabrafenib, potentially leading to more sustained target inhibition. * **Side Effects:** Common adverse effects include fatigue, nausea, and skin rashes. Unlike earlier BRAF inhibitors, it has a lower incidence of photosensitivity.
Question 202: Coasting effect is seen with which of the following agents?
- A. Nitrogen mustards
- B. Methotrexate
- C. Platinum compounds (Correct Answer)
- D. Dacarbazine
Explanation: **Explanation:** The **"Coasting Effect"** refers to a unique clinical phenomenon where neurotoxicity (specifically peripheral sensory neuropathy) continues to progress or worsen for several weeks to months even after the offending drug has been discontinued. **1. Why Platinum Compounds are correct:** Platinum-based agents, most notably **Oxaliplatin** (and to a lesser extent Cisplatin), are the classic cause of the coasting effect. These drugs accumulate in the dorsal root ganglia. Due to their slow clearance from neuronal tissues, DNA damage and oxidative stress continue to evolve even after plasma levels drop. Patients may report worsening numbness, tingling, or pain long after their final chemotherapy cycle. **2. Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Nitrogen mustards (e.g., Cyclophosphamide):** Their primary dose-limiting toxicity is myelosuppression and hemorrhagic cystitis. While they can cause some neurotoxicity (Ifosfamide), they do not typically exhibit the coasting phenomenon. * **Methotrexate:** Known for myelosuppression, mucositis, and hepatotoxicity. While intrathecal use can cause leucoencephalopathy, it does not cause the delayed sensory "coasting" seen with platinums. * **Dacarbazine:** Primarily causes severe nausea/vomiting and myelosuppression. It is not associated with progressive delayed neuropathy. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Oxaliplatin:** Distinctive for **cold-induced dysesthesia** (exacerbated by cold drinks/weather). * **Cisplatin:** Notable for **ototoxicity** (high-frequency hearing loss) and **nephrotoxicity** (prevented by aggressive hydration and Amifostine). * **Vinca Alkaloids (Vincristine):** Also cause peripheral neuropathy, but unlike platinums, the symptoms usually stabilize or improve relatively quickly upon discontinuation rather than "coasting."
Question 203: Denileukin diftitox binds to which interleukin?
- A. Interleukin-1 (IL-1)
- B. Interleukin-2 (IL-2) (Correct Answer)
- C. Interleukin-4 (IL-4)
- D. Interleukin-5 (IL-5)
Explanation: **Explanation:** **Denileukin diftitox** is a unique recombinant fusion protein designed as a targeted cytotoxic agent. Its mechanism of action is central to understanding why **Interleukin-2 (IL-2)** is the correct target. 1. **Mechanism of Action:** The drug consists of the cytotoxic "A" and "B" chains of the **Diphtheria toxin** fused to a recombinant human **Interleukin-2 (IL-2)** sequence. The IL-2 portion acts as a "homing device," specifically binding to the **high-affinity IL-2 receptors (CD25)** expressed on the surface of certain malignant cells. Once bound, the diphtheria toxin fragment is internalized via endocytosis, where it inhibits protein synthesis by ADP-ribosylation of Elongation Factor-2 (EF-2), leading to cell death. 2. **Analysis of Options:** * **Option B (IL-2):** Correct. Denileukin diftitox specifically targets cells expressing the IL-2 receptor (found on T-cell lymphomas). * **Options A, C, and D (IL-1, IL-4, IL-5):** Incorrect. These interleukins have distinct receptors and biological functions. Denileukin diftitox does not contain sequences that recognize or bind to these receptors. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Clinical Indication:** Primarily used for the treatment of **Persistent or Recurrent Cutaneous T-cell Lymphoma (CTCL)**, such as Mycosis Fungoides. * **Key Target:** It targets **CD25**, which is the alpha subunit of the IL-2 receptor. * **Adverse Effects:** A significant side effect is **Capillary Leak Syndrome**, characterized by hypotension, edema, and hypoalbuminemia. * **Mnemonic:** Den**il**eukin = **IL**-2; Dif**ti**tox = **Di**phtheria **T**oxin.
Question 204: Which of the following anticancer drugs is least likely to cause nausea and vomiting?
- A. Chlorambucil (Correct Answer)
- B. Cisplatin
- C. Doxorubicin
- D. Daunorubicin
Explanation: **Explanation:** The emetogenic potential of chemotherapy is a high-yield topic for NEET-PG. Anticancer drugs are classified into four categories based on their risk of causing nausea and vomiting: High (>90%), Moderate (30–90%), Low (10–30%), and Minimal (<10%). **1. Why Chlorambucil is correct:** Chlorambucil is an oral alkylating agent (nitrogen mustard) used primarily in Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL). It is classified as having **minimal emetogenic potential** (<10% risk). Most oral chemotherapy agents, especially at standard doses, are significantly less emetogenic than intravenous bolus therapies. **2. Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Cisplatin (Option B):** This is the **prototype of highly emetogenic drugs** (>90% risk). It triggers both acute and delayed emesis by releasing serotonin from enterochromaffin cells and acting on the Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone (CTZ). * **Doxorubicin & Daunorubicin (Options C & D):** These anthracyclines are classified as having **moderate emetogenic potential** (30–90% risk). When combined with cyclophosphamide (AC regimen), they are treated as highly emetogenic. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Highest Emetogenic Potential:** Cisplatin (most common answer), Dacarbazine, and high-dose Cyclophosphamide. * **Drug of Choice for Cisplatin-induced vomiting:** 5-HT3 antagonists (e.g., Ondansetron) are used for acute emesis; NK1 receptor antagonists (e.g., Aprepitant) are added for delayed emesis. * **Least Emetogenic Agents:** Vincristine, Bleomycin, Busulfan, and Chlorambucil. * **Anticipatory Vomiting:** Best managed with Benzodiazepines (e.g., Lorazepam).
Question 205: Bleomycin toxicity is characterized by hyperplasia of which of the following cells?
- A. Endothelial cells
- B. Type I pneumocytes
- C. Type II pneumocytes (Correct Answer)
- D. Alveolar macrophages
Explanation: **Explanation:** **Bleomycin** is a cytotoxic antibiotic that causes DNA strand scission through free radical generation. Its most significant dose-limiting toxicity is **Pulmonary Fibrosis**. **Why Type II Pneumocytes?** The pathogenesis of Bleomycin-induced lung injury involves damage to the alveolar epithelium. Bleomycin causes oxidative stress and damage to **Type I pneumocytes** (which cover 95% of the alveolar surface). In a compensatory attempt to repair the alveolar basement membrane, **Type II pneumocytes undergo hyperplasia** and hypertrophy. However, they fail to differentiate effectively into Type I cells, leading to fibroblast activation and subsequent interstitial fibrosis. This "Type II pneumocyte hyperplasia" is a hallmark histopathological finding. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Endothelial cells:** While bleomycin can cause initial vascular leakage, it does not typically cause endothelial hyperplasia. * **B. Type I pneumocytes:** These cells are extremely sensitive to injury and are **destroyed** (necrosed) by bleomycin, not increased in number. * **D. Alveolar macrophages:** While macrophages are involved in the inflammatory cytokine cascade (TGF-beta), they do not undergo characteristic hyperplasia in this context. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Mechanism:** Chelates ferrous iron ($Fe^{2+}$) to form free radicals. * **Cell Cycle:** Specifically acts on the **G2 phase**. * **Metabolism:** Inactivated by **bleomycin hydrolase**. The lung and skin have low levels of this enzyme, explaining the site-specific toxicities (Pulmonary fibrosis and Skin hyperpigmentation/flagellate dermatitis). * **Monitoring:** Pulmonary Function Tests (PFTs) showing a **decrease in DLCO** (Diffusion capacity) is the earliest sign of toxicity. * **Risk Factor:** High inspired oxygen ($FiO_2$) during surgery can exacerbate bleomycin lung injury.
Question 206: Which of the following is a monoclonal antibody against PD-L1?
- A. Golimumab
- B. Guselkumab
- C. Durvalumab (Correct Answer)
- D. Vedolizumab
Explanation: Explanation: Durvalumab is a human monoclonal antibody that targets Programmed Death-Ligand 1 (PD-L1). In the tumor microenvironment, cancer cells express PD-L1, which binds to PD-1 receptors on T-cells, effectively "switching off" the immune response (immune checkpoint). By inhibiting PD-L1, Durvalumab restores T-cell mediated anti-tumor activity. It is primarily used in the treatment of non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) and urothelial carcinoma. Analysis of Incorrect Options: * Golimumab (A): A monoclonal antibody against TNF-alpha. It is used in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, psoriatic arthritis, and ankylosing spondylitis. * Guselkumab (B): An interleukin inhibitor that targets IL-23. It is specifically indicated for moderate-to-severe plaque psoriasis. * Vedolizumab (D): An integrin antagonist (specifically $\alpha_4\beta_7$ integrin) [1]. It is gut-selective and used in the treatment of Inflammatory Bowel Disease (Crohn’s disease and Ulcerative Colitis) [1]. High-Yield NEET-PG Pearls: * PD-1 Inhibitors: Nivolumab, Pembrolizumab, and Cemiplimab (Target the receptor on T-cells). * PD-L1 Inhibitors: Atezolizumab, Avelumab, and Durvalumab (Mnemonic: "AAD" targets the Ligand on tumor cells). * CTLA-4 Inhibitor: Ipilimumab (another major immune checkpoint inhibitor). * Suffix Tip: Monoclonal antibodies ending in "-umab" are fully human, reducing the risk of infusion reactions compared to chimeric ("-ximab") antibodies.
Question 207: What is the standard chemotherapy regimen for metastatic testicular carcinoma?
- A. Bleomycin, Etoposide, Cisplatin (Correct Answer)
- B. Vinblastine, Etoposide, Cisplatin
- C. Doxorubicin, 5-Fluorouracil, Mercaptopurine
- D. Methotrexate, 5-Fluorouracil, Vincristine
Explanation: **Explanation:** The standard of care for metastatic germ cell tumors, including testicular carcinoma, is the **BEP regimen**. This combination is highly effective, often achieving cure rates exceeding 90% even in advanced stages. **1. Why Option A is Correct:** The BEP regimen consists of: * **B**leomycin (Antitumor antibiotic): Causes DNA strand breaks. * **E**toposide (Topoisomerase II inhibitor): Prevents DNA replication. * **P**latin (**Cisplatin**): An alkylating-like agent that forms DNA cross-links. Cisplatin is the "backbone" of this therapy. The synergy between these drugs targets rapidly dividing germ cells at different phases of the cell cycle. **2. Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Option B (VEP):** While Vinblastine was historically used (VBP regimen), it has been largely replaced by Etoposide because Etoposide offers better efficacy and lower neurotoxicity. * **Option C:** This combination is not a standard regimen. Doxorubicin and 5-FU are more commonly associated with breast or GI cancers. * **Option D:** These drugs are used in various protocols (like for ALL or colorectal cancer) but lack the specific efficacy required for testicular germ cell tumors. **3. NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Toxicity Profile:** * **Bleomycin:** Pulmonary fibrosis (monitor with DLCO). It is "skin and lung" toxic but **bone marrow sparing**. * **Cisplatin:** Nephrotoxicity (prevent with aggressive hydration/Amifostine) and Ototoxicity. * **Etoposide:** Secondary malignancies (specifically AML). * **Tumor Markers:** Always correlate treatment with Beta-hCG, AFP, and LDH levels. * **Alternative:** If Bleomycin is contraindicated (e.g., pre-existing lung disease), the **VIP regimen** (Etoposide, Ifosfamide, Cisplatin) is used.
Question 208: All of the following are monoclonal antibodies against CD-20 except?
- A. Rituximab
- B. Ofatumumab
- C. Ocrelizumab
- D. Brentuximab (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Explanation:** The correct answer is **D. Brentuximab**. **1. Why Brentuximab is the correct answer:** Brentuximab vedotin is an antibody-drug conjugate (ADC) directed against **CD30**, not CD20. It consists of a chimeric IgG1 antibody linked to the microtubule-disrupting agent **Monomethyl Auristatin E (MMAE)**. It is primarily used in the treatment of Hodgkin Lymphoma and Systemic Anaplastic Large Cell Lymphoma (ALCL), where CD30 is highly expressed. **2. Analysis of Incorrect Options (CD20 Inhibitors):** CD20 is a surface antigen found on B-cells. Monoclonal antibodies against CD20 are used for B-cell malignancies and autoimmune disorders. * **Rituximab (Option A):** The prototype chimeric monoclonal antibody against CD20. It is the backbone of therapy for Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma (NHL) and Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL). * **Ofatumumab (Option B):** A fully human monoclonal antibody that binds to a different epitope on CD20 than Rituximab. It is used in CLL and Multiple Sclerosis. * **Ocrelizumab (Option C):** A humanized anti-CD20 antibody specifically approved for both Relapsing and Primary Progressive Multiple Sclerosis. **3. High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Obinutuzumab:** Another important Type II anti-CD20 antibody used in CLL. * **CD20 vs. CD30:** Remember **"20 for B-cells"** (Rituximab) and **"30 for Reed-Sternberg cells"** (Brentuximab). * **Adverse Effect:** Infusion-related reactions are common with anti-CD20 drugs; premedication with antihistamines and acetaminophen is required. * **Brentuximab Side Effect:** Peripheral neuropathy is a significant dose-limiting toxicity due to the MMAE component.
Question 209: Which of the following conditions is NOT treated with ibrutinib?
- A. Mantle cell lymphoma
- B. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
- C. Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia
- D. Acute myeloid leukemia (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Explanation:** **Ibrutinib** is a first-in-class, potent, irreversible inhibitor of **Bruton’s Tyrosine Kinase (BTK)**. BTK is a critical signaling molecule in the B-cell receptor (BCR) pathway, which is essential for the survival, proliferation, and differentiation of **B-lymphocytes**. 1. **Why Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) is the correct answer:** AML is a malignancy of the **myeloid** lineage (granulocytes, monocytes, etc.), not the B-cell lineage. Since AML cells do not typically rely on the BTK signaling pathway for survival, Ibrutinib is ineffective and is not an approved treatment for this condition. 2. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Mantle Cell Lymphoma (MCL):** Ibrutinib is FDA-approved for patients with MCL who have received at least one prior therapy. * **Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL):** It is a mainstay of treatment for CLL (and Small Lymphocytic Lymphoma), including cases with the high-risk 17p deletion. * **Waldenstrom’s Macroglobulinemia (WM):** This is a B-cell neoplasm characterized by excess IgM. Ibrutinib is highly effective here as these cells are dependent on BTK signaling. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Mechanism:** Covalent (irreversible) binding to a cysteine residue (Cys-481) in the BTK active site. * **Route:** Administered **orally**. * **Key Side Effects:** * **Atrial Fibrillation:** A classic board-favorite side effect. * **Increased Bleeding Risk:** Patients should be monitored for bruising or hemorrhage (avoid use with warfarin). * **Lymphocytosis:** A transient increase in lymphocyte count is common early in treatment as cells move from lymph nodes into the blood.
Question 210: Which drug can be used in a patient with CML and a T315i mutation?
- A. Imatinib
- B. Nilotinib
- C. Dasatinib
- D. Ponatinib (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Explanation:** The **T315I mutation** is known as the "gatekeeper mutation" in Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML). It involves a substitution of threonine (T) with isoleucine (I) at position 315 of the BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase enzyme. This specific structural change creates steric hindrance that prevents most Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitors (TKIs) from binding to the ATP-binding pocket. **Why Ponatinib is correct:** **Ponatinib** is a third-generation TKI specifically designed with a carbon-carbon triple bond (ethynyl group) that bypasses the steric bulk created by the isoleucine residue. It is currently the only approved TKI effective against the T315I mutation. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Imatinib (1st Gen):** The prototype TKI; it is highly effective for wild-type BCR-ABL but is completely ineffective against the T315I mutation. * **Nilotinib & Dasatinib (2nd Gen):** While these are more potent than Imatinib and can overcome many other resistance mutations, they cannot bind to the BCR-ABL protein when the T315I mutation is present. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** 1. **Adverse Effect of Ponatinib:** It is associated with a high risk of **arterial thrombosis** (myocardial infarction, stroke) and hepatotoxicity. 2. **Asciminib:** A newer drug (STAMP inhibitor) that binds to the myristoyl pocket; it is also used for T315I mutations in patients resistant to other therapies. 3. **Dasatinib Side Effect:** Classically associated with **pleural effusion**. 4. **Imatinib Side Effect:** Most common is **periorbital edema** and fluid retention.
Practice by Chapter
Principles of Cancer Chemotherapy
Practice Questions
Alkylating Agents
Practice Questions
Antimetabolites
Practice Questions
Antitumor Antibiotics
Practice Questions
Plant Alkaloids
Practice Questions
Topoisomerase Inhibitors
Practice Questions
Hormonal Agents
Practice Questions
Targeted Therapy
Practice Questions
Immunotherapy
Practice Questions
Management of Chemotherapy Side Effects
Practice Questions
Want unlimited practice?
Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.
Start For Free