Analgesics and Anti-inflammatory Drugs Practice Questions

Q: Use of morphine should be avoided in all of the following patients EXCEPT?

Ischemic heart disease patients. **Explanation:** Morphine is a potent opioid analgesic, but its systemic effects necessitate caution in specific clinical scenarios. **Why Ischemic Heart Disease (IHD) is the Correct Answer:** Morphine is actually a **drug of choice** in the management of acute myocardial infarction (MI) and IHD. It provides two major benefits: 1. **Analgesia:** It relieves the intense pain and anxiety associated with an MI, reducing sympathetic overactivity. 2. **Venodilation:** It increases venous capacitance (preload reduction), which decreases the workload of the heart and lowers myocardial oxygen demand. **Why the other options are contraindicated:** * **Bronchial Asthma:** Morphine causes **histamine release**, which can lead to bronchoconstriction. Additionally, its respiratory depressant effect is dangerous in patients with compromised pulmonary function. * **Elderly Male Patients:** Morphine can cause contraction of the bladder sphincter and relaxation of the detrusor muscle. In elderly males, who often have **Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)**, this can precipitate acute urinary retention. * **Biliary Colic:** Morphine causes contraction of the **Sphincter of Oddi**, which increases intrabiliary pressure and can exacerbate the pain of biliary colic. (Note: Pethidine is often preferred here as it has less effect on the sphincter). **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Head Injury:** Morphine is strictly contraindicated in head injuries because it causes respiratory depression, leading to CO2 retention. This results in cerebral vasodilation and a further increase in **intracranial pressure (ICP)**. * **Miosis:** Morphine causes "pin-point pupils" via stimulation of the Edinger-Westphal nucleus. * **Antidote:** Naloxone is the specific antagonist used for opioid overdose.

Q: Infliximab is contraindicated in which of the following conditions?

Intestinal tuberculosis. **Explanation:** **Infliximab** is a chimeric monoclonal antibody that binds to and inhibits **Tumor Necrosis Factor-alpha (TNF-α)**. TNF-α is a critical cytokine involved in the body's immune response, specifically in the formation and maintenance of **granulomas**, which sequester *Mycobacterium tuberculosis*. **Why Intestinal Tuberculosis is the Correct Answer:** By inhibiting TNF-α, Infliximab disrupts granuloma stability. This can lead to the reactivation of latent tuberculosis or the rapid dissemination of active tuberculosis. Therefore, active tuberculosis (including intestinal TB) is a strict contraindication. Before starting any TNF-α inhibitor, patients must be screened for latent TB using a Tuberculin Skin Test (Mantoux) or IGRA. **Why the Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Crohn’s Disease:** Infliximab is a primary treatment for moderate-to-severe Crohn’s disease, especially in patients who are refractory to conventional therapy or have fistulizing disease. * **Ankylosing Spondylitis:** TNF-α inhibitors are highly effective and FDA-approved for managing the axial inflammation associated with this condition. * **Rheumatoid Arthritis:** Infliximab, often used in combination with Methotrexate, is a standard Disease-Modifying Antirheumatic Drug (DMARD) for patients who do not respond to non-biological DMARDs. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Mechanism:** Chimeric (mouse/human) IgG1 monoclonal antibody against TNF-α. * **Other TNF-α Inhibitors:** Adalimumab (fully human), Etanercept (decoy receptor), and Certolizumab (pegylated). * **Key Contraindications:** Active infections (TB, Hepatitis B), NYHA Class III/IV Heart Failure (may worsen heart failure), and demyelinating diseases (like Multiple Sclerosis). * **Side Effect:** Increased risk of lymphoma and opportunistic infections.

Q: Important effects of aspirin include all of the following, EXCEPT:

Reduction of bleeding tendency. **Explanation:** The correct answer is **D. Reduction of bleeding tendency**. Aspirin actually **increases** bleeding tendency rather than reducing it. **1. Why Option D is correct (The Mechanism):** Aspirin (Acetylsalicylic acid) is an irreversible inhibitor of the enzyme **Cyclooxygenase-1 (COX-1)**. In platelets, this inhibition prevents the formation of **Thromboxane A2 (TXA2)**, a potent platelet aggregator and vasoconstrictor. Since platelets are anuclear and cannot synthesize new enzymes, the effect lasts for the entire lifespan of the platelet (8–11 days). This leads to prolonged bleeding time, making it an anti-thrombotic agent, not a pro-coagulant. **2. Why the other options are incorrect:** * **A & B (Antipyretic and Anti-inflammatory):** Aspirin inhibits COX-2 in the periphery and the hypothalamus. This reduces the synthesis of **Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2)**, which is responsible for pain, inflammation, and the elevation of the thermal set-point (fever). * **C (Respiratory Stimulation):** In toxic doses (salicylism), aspirin directly stimulates the respiratory center in the medulla and uncouples oxidative phosphorylation (leading to increased $CO_2$ production). This causes hyperventilation and initial respiratory alkalosis. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Low dose (75–150 mg):** Anti-platelet effect (selective TXA2 inhibition). * **Analgesic/Antipyretic dose:** 300–600 mg. * **Anti-inflammatory dose:** 3–5 g/day (rarely used now due to toxicity). * **Zero-order kinetics:** Aspirin follows non-linear (saturable) elimination at high/toxic doses. * **Reye’s Syndrome:** Aspirin is contraindicated in children with viral infections (Varicella/Influenza) due to the risk of hepatic encephalopathy. Use Paracetamol instead.

Q: A 19-year-old male complains of shortness of breath associated with wheezing after taking aspirin for a headache. In cases of aspirin hypersensitivity, which of the following mediators is responsible for this condition?

Leukotriene LTC4. ### Explanation **Mechanism of Aspirin-Exacerbated Respiratory Disease (AERD)** Aspirin and other NSAIDs work by inhibiting the enzyme **Cyclooxygenase (COX)**. In susceptible individuals, the inhibition of the COX pathway prevents the conversion of Arachidonic acid into Prostaglandins. This leads to a "shunting" of Arachidonic acid metabolism toward the **Lipoxygenase (LOX) pathway**. This results in the overproduction of **Cysteinyl Leukotrienes (LTC4, LTD4, and LTE4)**. **LTC4** is a potent bronchoconstrictor that increases vascular permeability and mucus secretion, leading to the clinical presentation of wheezing and shortness of breath (Aspirin-induced asthma). **Analysis of Options:** * **Option A (LTC4):** Correct. It is the primary mediator responsible for bronchospasm in aspirin hypersensitivity. * **Option B (PGE2):** Incorrect. PGE2 actually has a protective effect on the airways. Aspirin-induced depletion of PGE2 (which normally inhibits the LOX enzyme) further contributes to the overproduction of leukotrienes. * **Option C (Prostacyclin):** Incorrect. Prostacyclin (PGI2) is a vasodilator and inhibitor of platelet aggregation; its levels decrease with aspirin use but it does not cause bronchoconstriction. * **Option D (Thromboxane):** Incorrect. Thromboxane (TXA2) is involved in platelet aggregation. Aspirin inhibits its synthesis, which is the basis for its antiplatelet effect, not hypersensitivity. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Samter’s Triad:** Aspirin sensitivity, Bronchial Asthma, and Nasal Polyps. * **Management:** The drug of choice for treating aspirin-induced asthma is **Leukotriene Receptor Antagonists (LTRAs)** like **Montelukast** or **Zafirlukast**. * **Safe Alternative:** Acetaminophen (Paracetamol) is generally safe in low doses for patients with aspirin-induced asthma as it is a weak COX-1 inhibitor.

Q: Latanoprost (a PGF2 alpha analog) is primarily used in the treatment of which condition?

Glaucoma. **Explanation:** **Latanoprost** is a synthetic analog of **Prostaglandin F2-alpha (PGF2α)**. It is the first-line treatment for **Open-Angle Glaucoma** and ocular hypertension. **1. Why Option D is Correct:** Latanoprost acts as a selective agonist at FP receptors in the eye. Its primary mechanism of action is increasing the **uveoscleral outflow** of aqueous humor (rather than the traditional trabecular route). By enhancing drainage, it effectively lowers intraocular pressure (IOP). Its once-daily dosing and high efficacy make it a preferred agent over beta-blockers. **2. Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Option A:** Maintenance of ductus arteriosus is achieved using **Alprostadil (PGE1)**. Conversely, NSAIDs like Indomethacin are used to close a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA). * **Option B:** Pulmonary hypertension is treated with Prostacyclin (PGI2) analogs like **Epoprostenol, Treprostinil, or Iloprost**, which act as potent vasodilators. * **Option C:** Gastric mucosal protection is the role of **Misoprostol (PGE1 analog)**, which inhibits acid secretion and stimulates mucus/bicarbonate production. **3. High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Side Effects:** A unique and frequently tested side effect of Latanoprost is **increased brown pigmentation of the iris** and **hypertrichosis** (thickening and darkening of eyelashes). * **Other PGF2α analogs:** Travoprost and Bimatoprost (Bimatoprost is also used for eyelash hypotrichosis). * **Contraindication:** Caution should be exercised in patients with active intraocular inflammation (uveitis) or macular edema.

Q: Which of the following is least narcotic?

Papaverine. **Explanation:** The classification of opium alkaloids is based on their chemical structure and pharmacological action. Opium contains two distinct chemical classes: **Phenanthrene derivatives** and **Benzylisoquinoline derivatives**. 1. **The Correct Answer (D): Papaverine** Papaverine belongs to the **Benzylisoquinoline** group. Unlike phenanthrenes, these compounds have **no analgesic or narcotic properties**. Instead, Papaverine acts as a direct-acting smooth muscle relaxant (vasodilator) by inhibiting phosphodiesterase enzymes. Therefore, it is the "least narcotic" (non-narcotic) among the options. 2. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Morphine:** The prototype phenanthrene alkaloid. It is a potent $\mu$-opioid receptor agonist and the gold standard for narcotic analgesics. * **B. Codeine:** A phenanthrene derivative (methyl-morphine). While less potent than morphine, it possesses significant narcotic, analgesic, and antitussive properties. * **C. Thebaine:** Although not used clinically due to its tendency to cause convulsions rather than depression, it is chemically a phenanthrene alkaloid and serves as a precursor for semi-synthetic opioids like oxycodone and naloxone. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Opium Composition:** Contains ~10% Morphine, 0.5% Codeine, and 1% Papaverine. * **Papaverine Clinical Use:** Historically used for erectile dysfunction (intracavernosal injection) and to relieve visceral spasms or peripheral vascular spasms. * **Noscapine:** Another Benzylisoquinoline alkaloid found in opium; like Papaverine, it is **non-narcotic** and used primarily as an antitussive. * **Mnemonic:** Phenanthrenes (**P**ainkillers) vs. Benzylisoquinolines (**B**lood vessel/Bronchi relaxants).

Q: Morphine can be administered by all of the following routes EXCEPT:

Transdermal. **Explanation:** **1. Why Transdermal is the Correct Answer (The Exception):** Morphine is a highly **hydrophilic** (polar) drug. For a drug to be administered via a transdermal patch, it must be highly **lipophilic** to penetrate the stratum corneum of the skin effectively. Because of its low lipid solubility, morphine cannot be absorbed across the skin in therapeutic concentrations. In contrast, **Fentanyl** and **Buprenorphine** are highly lipophilic opioids and are the standard choices for transdermal delivery. **2. Analysis of Other Options:** * **Intramuscular (IM):** This is a classic route for acute pain management (e.g., myocardial infarction). Morphine has good systemic absorption from muscle tissue. * **Epidural & Subarachnoid (Spinal):** Morphine is frequently used for regional analgesia (e.g., post-operative or labor pain). Due to its hydrophilic nature, when injected into the CSF, it has a slow onset but a **long duration of action** and can spread cranially, leading to a specific risk of delayed respiratory depression. **3. High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **First-pass metabolism:** Morphine undergoes significant hepatic metabolism (glucuronidation); hence, the oral dose is much higher (3x) than the parenteral dose. * **Active Metabolites:** Morphine-6-glucuronide (potent analgesic) and Morphine-3-glucuronide (neurotoxic/seizures). Both accumulate in **renal failure**. * **Miosis & Constipation:** These are the two side effects of morphine to which **tolerance never develops**. * **Contraindication:** Avoid in head injuries (increases intracranial pressure due to CO2 retention and vasodilation).

Q: All of the following drugs are used in the treatment of chronic gout, except?

Methotrexate. **Explanation:** The management of gout is divided into two phases: treatment of acute attacks (using NSAIDs, Colchicine, or Steroids) and long-term management of **chronic gout** (Urate Lowering Therapy - ULT). **Why Methotrexate is the correct answer:** **Methotrexate** is a folate antagonist and a Disease-Modifying Antirheumatic Drug (DMARD) primarily used in Rheumatoid Arthritis and Psoriasis. It has **no role** in the management of gout. In fact, cytotoxic drugs like methotrexate can occasionally increase uric acid levels due to rapid cell turnover (tumor lysis). **Analysis of incorrect options:** * **Allopurinol:** The first-line drug for chronic gout. It is a **Xanthine Oxidase inhibitor** that reduces the synthesis of uric acid. * **Benzbromarone:** A potent **Uricosuric agent**. It works by inhibiting the URAT1 transporter in the proximal tubule, increasing the renal excretion of uric acid. It is used in patients who are underexcretors of uric acid. * **Pegloticase:** A recombinant **Urate Oxidase (Uricase) enzyme**. It converts uric acid into allantoin, which is highly soluble and easily excreted. It is reserved for refractory or "orphan" gout. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** 1. **Never start ULT during an acute attack:** Sudden fluctuations in serum urate levels can precipitate or worsen a flare. 2. **Febuxostat:** A non-purine selective inhibitor of Xanthine Oxidase, used if Allopurinol is contraindicated or not tolerated. 3. **Probenecid:** Another common uricosuric; however, it is ineffective if the GFR is <50 mL/min. 4. **Drug of choice for Acute Gout:** NSAIDs (e.g., Indomethacin, Naproxen). If contraindicated (e.g., renal failure), use Corticosteroids.

Q: Pethidine is pharmacologically different from morphine because it

Has additional Anticholinergic action. Pethidine (Meperidine) is a synthetic opioid that differs from Morphine due to its unique chemical structure, which resembles Atropine. This structural similarity imparts significant **anticholinergic (antimuscarinic) properties** to Pethidine, which are absent in Morphine [2]. **Why Option C is Correct:** The additional anticholinergic action of Pethidine leads to several clinical differences: * **Mydriasis:** Unlike Morphine, which causes "pin-point pupils" (miosis), Pethidine can cause pupillary dilation or maintain a normal pupil size. * **Tachycardia:** It may cause an increase in heart rate, whereas Morphine typically causes bradycardia [2]. * **Dry Mouth:** Patients often experience more xerostomia. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Sedation:** Pethidine is generally **less sedating** than Morphine. At high doses or with chronic use, its metabolite (normeperidine) can cause CNS excitation, tremors, and seizures. * **B. Constipation:** Pethidine causes **less constipation** and has a shorter duration of action on the gastrointestinal tract compared to Morphine [1]. * **D. Spasm of Sphincter of Oddi:** While Pethidine does cause some contraction of smooth muscles, it causes **less spasm** of the Sphincter of Oddi than Morphine. Historically, this made it the preferred opioid for biliary colic (though NSAIDs are now first-line). **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** 1. **Metabolite Danger:** Pethidine is metabolized to **Normeperidine** [1], which is neurotoxic. It can cause **seizures**, especially in patients with renal failure [2]. 2. **Drug Interaction:** Pethidine is strictly contraindicated with **MAO Inhibitors** (e.g., Selegiline) as it can trigger a life-threatening **Serotonin Syndrome** (hyperpyrexia, delirium, convulsions). 3. **Obstetrics:** Pethidine is often preferred in labor because it does not delay uterine contractions as much as Morphine.

Question 1

Use of morphine should be avoided in all of the following patients EXCEPT?

Accepted Answer

Ischemic heart disease patients

Answer

Bronchial asthma patients

Answer

Elderly male patients

Answer

Biliary colic patients

Question 2

Infliximab is contraindicated in which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

Intestinal tuberculosis

Answer

Crohn's disease

Answer

Ankylosing spondylitis

Answer

Rheumatoid arthritis

Question 3

Important effects of aspirin include all of the following, EXCEPT:

Accepted Answer

Reduction of bleeding tendency

Answer

Reduction of fever

Answer

Reduction of prostaglandin synthesis in inflamed tissues

Answer

Respiratory stimulation when taken in toxic dosage

Question 4

A 19-year-old male complains of shortness of breath associated with wheezing after taking aspirin for a headache. In cases of aspirin hypersensitivity, which of the following mediators is responsible for this condition?

Accepted Answer

Leukotriene LTC4

Answer

PGE2

Answer

Prostacyclin

Answer

Thromboxane

Question 5

What is the effective and safe drug for intractable pain in the terminal cancer stage?

Accepted Answer

Oral Morphine

Answer

Injectable pethidine

Answer

Injectable ketamine

Answer

Oral Brufen

Question 6

Latanoprost (a PGF2 alpha analog) is primarily used in the treatment of which condition?

Accepted Answer

Glaucoma

Answer

Maintenance of the ductus arteriosus

Answer

Pulmonary hypertension

Answer

Gastric mucosal protection

Question 7

Which of the following is least narcotic?

Accepted Answer

Papaverine

Answer

Morphine

Answer

Codeine

Answer

Thebaine

Question 8

Morphine can be administered by all of the following routes EXCEPT:

Accepted Answer

Transdermal

Answer

Intramuscular

Answer

Epidural

Answer

Subarachnoid

Question 9

All of the following drugs are used in the treatment of chronic gout, except?

Accepted Answer

Methotrexate

Answer

Allopurinol

Answer

Benzbromarone

Answer

Pegloticase

Question 10

Pethidine is pharmacologically different from morphine because it

Accepted Answer

Has additional Anticholinergic action

Answer

Causes more sedation

Answer

Causes more constipation

Answer

Causes spasm of sphincter of Oddi

Analgesics and Anti-inflammatory Drugs — MCQs

Analgesics and Anti-inflammatory Drugs — MCQs

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