Pediatric Surgery Basics — MCQs

Pediatric Surgery Basics Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 151: An infant presents with intermittent abdominal pain and currant jelly stools. An ultrasound suggests intussusception. What is the best next step in management?

A. CT scan of the abdomen
B. Observation and follow-up
C. Exploratory laparotomy
D. Pneumatic or hydrostatic enema reduction (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Pneumatic or hydrostatic enema reduction*** - **Air enema (pneumatic) or saline enema (hydrostatic)** is the **first-line treatment** for uncomplicated intussusception in hemodynamically stable infants. It can both diagnose and therapeutically reduce the intussusception. - The classic symptoms of **intermittent abdominal pain** and **currant jelly stools** are highly suggestive of intussusception, and an ultrasound confirming the diagnosis makes non-operative enema reduction the appropriate next step. - Success rates are **70-90%** for uncomplicated cases. Air enema is preferred over barium as it has lower risk of peritonitis if perforation occurs. *Exploratory laparotomy* - This is a surgical intervention and is typically reserved for cases where **pneumatic or hydrostatic reduction fails**, or when there are signs of **peritonitis, bowel perforation, or hemodynamic instability**. - While surgery may ultimately be necessary, it is not the initial best step given the high success rate of non-operative reduction. *CT scan of the abdomen* - An ultrasound has already confirmed the diagnosis of intussusception; a **CT scan is not usually necessary** and would expose the infant to unnecessary radiation. - The priority after diagnosis is reduction, not further imaging, unless complications are suspected. *Observation and follow-up* - Intussusception is a **medical emergency** that can lead to bowel ischemia, necrosis, and perforation if not treated promptly. - **Observation is not appropriate** as it delays definitive treatment and increases the risk of serious complications including bowel necrosis within 24 hours.

Question 152: A newborn presents with bilious vomiting and abdominal distension. An X-ray shows a 'double bubble' sign. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Intussusception
B. Duodenal atresia (Correct Answer)
C. Midgut volvulus
D. Hirschsprung disease

Explanation: ***Duodenal atresia*** - The **"double bubble" sign** on abdominal X-ray is pathognomonic for duodenal atresia, representing air trapped in the stomach and the dilated proximal duodenum separated by the pylorus. - **Bilious vomiting** and **abdominal distension** in a newborn further support this diagnosis, indicating a high-grade obstruction distal to the ampulla of Vater. *Intussusception* - Typically presents with intermittent episodes of **colicky abdominal pain**, **vomiting**, and sometimes **"currant jelly" stools** (blood and mucus), not usually bilious vomiting as the primary symptom in newborns. - The X-ray findings for intussusception would not show a "double bubble" sign, but rather signs of bowel obstruction or a **target sign** on ultrasound. *Midgut volvulus* - While it can cause bilious vomiting and abdominal distension, a midgut volvulus typically does not present with a "double bubble" sign because the obstruction is usually distal to the duodenum and often involves **ischemia** of a larger segment of the bowel. - The characteristic imaging finding for midgut volvulus is the **"corkscrew" sign** on upper GI series due to twisting of the small bowel. *Hirschsprung disease* - This condition usually presents with **delayed passage of meconium**, **abdominal distension**, and **bilious vomiting** in later stages, but it does not cause a "double bubble" sign. - The obstruction in Hirschsprung disease is due to an **aganglionic segment of the colon**, leading to a transition zone on imaging and often showing dilated loops of bowel distal to the stomach and duodenum.

Question 153: Prevalence of omphalocele at birth is

A. 1 in 100 live births
B. 1 in 2000 live births
C. 1 in 4000 live births (Correct Answer)
D. 1 in 10,000 live births

Explanation: ***1 in 4000 live births*** - **Omphalocele** is a congenital abdominal wall defect with a prevalence commonly cited as approximately **1 in 4000 to 1 in 5000 live births** in standard pediatric textbooks and Indian medical literature. - This figure represents the **most frequently used estimate** for exam purposes and clinical reference, though actual prevalence may vary by population and detection methods. - The embryological malformation involves failure of the abdominal wall to close, leading to protrusion of abdominal organs covered by a **peritoneal sac**. *1 in 100 live births* - A prevalence of **1 in 100 live births** would indicate a much higher incidence than what is observed for omphalocele. - This rate is more consistent with common conditions like congenital heart defects, which are significantly more frequent than abdominal wall defects. *1 in 2000 live births* - **1 in 2000 live births** is higher than the accepted prevalence for omphalocele. - This would represent approximately twice the actual incidence, making it an overestimate. *1 in 10,000 live births* - While some population-based studies report prevalence as low as **1 in 10,000 live births**, this represents the **lower end of the range** and is less commonly cited. - More recent epidemiological data shows variability between 1 in 4000 to 1 in 10,000 depending on geographic region and inclusion criteria, but **1 in 4000-5000 remains the standard reference** for medical education and examinations.

Question 154: A child presents with a scrotal swelling that disappears when lying down and reappears when standing or crying. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Testicular torsion
B. Indirect inguinal hernia (Correct Answer)
C. Varicocele
D. Congenital hydrocele

Explanation: ***Indirect inguinal hernia*** - This presentation, where a **scrotal swelling disappears upon lying down** and reappears with increased intra-abdominal pressure (standing, crying), is classic for an **indirect inguinal hernia**. - The hernia sac passes through the **patent processus vaginalis**, allowing abdominal contents to descend into the scrotum. - The **reducibility** of the swelling is the key diagnostic feature. *Congenital hydrocele* - A **congenital hydrocele** is typically a collection of **peritoneal fluid** within the processus vaginalis that does not usually reduce spontaneously. - While it can be transilluminable, its size does not typically fluctuate as dramatically with position or straining. - Hydroceles are **non-reducible** and **painless**. *Varicocele* - A **varicocele** is an abnormal dilation of the **pampiniform plexus veins** within the scrotum. - It usually feels like a "bag of worms" and **enlarges with standing** or Valsalva maneuver, but does not typically reduce completely when lying down in the same way an indirect hernia does. - More common in **adolescents**, typically on the **left side**. *Testicular torsion* - **Testicular torsion** presents with **acute onset** severe scrotal pain and swelling, not a chronic reducible swelling. - The affected testis is typically **tender**, **elevated**, and has an **abnormal lie** (horizontal orientation). - This is a **surgical emergency** requiring immediate intervention, unlike the gradual, painless, reducible presentation described.

Question 155: All of the following are clinical features suggestive of tracheoesophageal fistula except -

A. Fever (Correct Answer)
B. Choking and Coughing
C. Regurgitation
D. Cyanosis

Explanation: ***Fever*** - **Fever is NOT a primary clinical feature** of tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF) itself. - While fever might occur as a **complication** if aspiration pneumonia develops, it is not a direct presenting sign of TEF. - The classic presentation of TEF occurs in **newborns within hours of birth** and involves the "3 Cs" - not fever. *Choking and Coughing* - Part of the classic **"3 Cs" triad** (Choking, Coughing, Cyanosis) of TEF presentation. - Occurs during the **first feeding attempt** when milk enters the trachea through the abnormal fistulous connection. - This is a **cardinal diagnostic feature** that should immediately raise suspicion for TEF. *Regurgitation* - **Immediate regurgitation** of feeds is characteristic, especially in TEF with esophageal atresia (most common type - Type C). - The **blind-ending proximal esophageal pouch** prevents normal passage of saliva and feeds, causing regurgitation. - Often accompanied by **excessive drooling and frothy secretions** from the mouth and nose. *Cyanosis* - The third component of the **"3 Cs" triad** and a key clinical feature. - Results from **aspiration of feeds or saliva** into the trachea and lungs, causing acute respiratory distress. - May also occur from **laryngospasm** as a protective reflex when fluid enters the airway.

Question 156: Which of the following urethral anomalies is the most common?

A. Hypospadias (Correct Answer)
B. Pinhole meatus
C. Epispadias
D. Stricture of the urethra

Explanation: ***Hypospadias*** - **Hypospadias** is the most common urethral anomaly, occurring when the **urethral opening** is located on the underside of the penis rather than at the tip. - Its prevalence ranges from approximately **1 in 150 to 1 in 300 live male births**, making it significantly more frequent than other urethral malformations. *Pinhole meatus* - A **pinhole meatus** refers to an abnormally small urethral opening. - While it can be a component or consequence of other anomalies, it is **less common as a standalone finding** compared to hypospadias. *Epispadias* - **Epispadias** is a rare anomaly where the urethra opens on the **dorsal (top) aspect** of the penis. - Its incidence is much lower than hypospadias, estimated at **1 in 100,000 to 1 in 500,000 live births**. *Stricture of the urethra* - A **urethral stricture** is a narrowing of the urethra, often due to **scar tissue** from inflammation, trauma, or infection. - Although it can present at any age, it is more commonly an **acquired condition** rather than a congenital anomaly like hypospadias or epispadias.

Question 157: Most common age for intussusception is

A. 0 - 6 months
B. 6 months - 3 years (Correct Answer)
C. 3 - 5 years
D. > 5 years

Explanation: ***6 months - 3 years*** - Intussusception commonly occurs in infants and young children, with the peak incidence between **6 months and 3 years** of age. - This age range coincides with changes in feeding practices and increased exposure to viral infections, which can sometimes precede intussusception. - The **typical age** is 5-9 months, with most cases occurring before 2 years. *0 - 6 months* - While intussusception can occur in this age group, it is **less common** than in slightly older infants. - Intussusception in very young infants may have different underlying causes, such as a **pathologic lead point**. *3 - 5 years* - Intussusception is **less frequent** in this age group compared to infants and toddlers. - When it does occur, there is a higher likelihood of an **identifiable lead point**, such as a Meckel's diverticulum or polyp. *> 5 years* - Intussusception is **rare** in children over the age of 5 years. - In older children and adults, it is almost always associated with a **pathological lead point**, such as a tumor or postoperative adhesions.

Question 158: A 3-month-old infant presents with an abdominal palpable mass and non-bilious vomiting. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (Correct Answer)
B. Tracheoesophageal fistula
C. Duodenal atresia
D. Intussusception

Explanation: ***Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis*** - The classic presentation includes **projectile non-bilious vomiting** and a palpable **olive-shaped mass** in the epigastrium of an infant typically between 3 weeks and 6 months of age. - The vomiting is non-bilious because the obstruction is proximal to the ampulla of Vater. *Intussusception* - While it can present with an **abdominal mass** and vomiting, the vomiting is often **bilious** and the classic stool is **'currant jelly'**, which is not mentioned here. - It usually presents with sudden onset of severe, **colicky abdominal pain** and occurs more commonly in slightly older infants (6-12 months). *Tracheoesophageal fistula* - This condition presents at birth with symptoms such as **choking, coughing**, and **cyanosis** during feeding. - It usually causes respiratory distress and feeding difficulties from the first days of life, not a palpable abdominal mass and non-bilious vomiting at 3 months. *Duodenal atresia* - This is a congenital obstruction that typically presents with **bilious vomiting** (as the obstruction is distal to the ampulla of Vater) within the first 24-48 hours of life. - Imaging usually shows a **“double bubble” sign** on abdominal X-ray, and an abdominal mass is not typically palpable.

Question 159: What is the optimal age range for performing surgery for hypospadias?

A. 4 - 6 months
B. > 2 years
C. 0 - 4 months
D. 6 - 18 months (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***6 - 18 months*** - This age range balances favorable tissue response for **hypospadias repair** with minimizing psychological impact on the child. - At this age, the penile tissues are adequately developed for surgical reconstruction, anesthetic risks are lower than in the neonatal period, and the child has minimal **psychosexual awareness** of genital differences. - Performing surgery before toilet training (which typically begins after 18 months) avoids interference with this important developmental milestone. *0 - 4 months* - Performing surgery too early, particularly in the **neonatal period**, may lead to greater anesthetic risks and technical challenges due to smaller vessel size and less developed tissues. - The rapid growth and changes in infant anatomy during this period can also potentially affect the long-term results of the repair. *4 - 6 months* - While this period is past the immediate neonatal stage, it is still considered relatively early for optimal hypospadias repair. - The penile tissues may still be too small and delicate for complex reconstructions, increasing the operational difficulty and potential for **complications**. *> 2 years* - Delaying surgery beyond 2 years increases the risk of **psychological and psychosexual trauma** for the child, as they become more aware of their genital differences. - Older children may also be more difficult to manage post-operatively, and there is no significant surgical advantage to waiting this long compared to the 6-18 month window.

Question 160: Anorectal anomalies are commonly associated with which of the following congenital anomalies?

A. Cardiac anomalies (Correct Answer)
B. Duodenal atresia
C. CNS malformations
D. Abdominal wall defects

Explanation: ***Cardiac anomalies*** - **Cardiac anomalies** occur in approximately 30-50% of patients with **anorectal malformations**, making them the most commonly associated congenital anomaly. - These can range from simple septal defects to complex **congenital heart diseases**, often requiring surgical intervention. *Duodenal atresia* - **Duodenal atresia** is a common gastrointestinal anomaly but is less frequently associated with **anorectal malformations** compared to cardiac anomalies. - It typically presents with **bilious vomiting** and a "double bubble" sign on X-ray, which is not directly linked to the embryological development of the anorectum. *CNS malformations* - **CNS malformations**, such as **spinal dysraphism** (e.g., tethered cord, myelomeningocele), are certainly associated with **anorectal malformations**, particularly in the context of **VACTERL association**. - While significant, their incidence is generally lower than that of **cardiac anomalies** in this group. *Abdominal wall defects* - **Abdominal wall defects** like **omphalocele** or **gastroschisis** are distinct congenital anomalies with different embryological origins than **anorectal malformations**. - They are not considered a primary or most common associated anomaly with **anorectal malformations**.

Practice by Chapter

Surgical Conditions of the Newborn

Practice Questions

Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia

Practice Questions

Esophageal Atresia and Tracheoesophageal Fistula

Practice Questions

Intestinal Atresia and Stenosis

Practice Questions

Malrotation and Volvulus

Practice Questions

Hirschsprung's Disease

Practice Questions

Anorectal Malformations

Practice Questions

Biliary Atresia

Practice Questions

Abdominal Wall Defects

Practice Questions

Inguinal Hernia and Hydrocele

Practice Questions

Intussusception

Practice Questions

Appendicitis in Children

Practice Questions

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