Pediatric Surgery Basics — MCQs

Pediatric Surgery Basics Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 131: What is the most common cause of gastric outlet obstruction in a 4-week-old baby?

A. Foreign body
B. Annular pancreas
C. Duodenal atresia
D. Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis*** - This condition involves thickening of the **pyloric muscle**, leading to a narrowed outflow tract from the stomach. - It classically presents in infants around **2-6 weeks of age** with **projectile, non-bilious vomiting** and a palpable **olive-shaped mass** in the epigastrium. *Foreign body* - While possible, foreign body ingestion is an **uncommon cause** of gastric outlet obstruction in a 4-week-old infant. - Infants within this age range are typically **not mobile** or exploring their environment in a way that would lead to frequent foreign body ingestion. *Annular pancreas* - This is a rare congenital anomaly where pancreatic tissue completely encircles the **duodenum**, causing obstruction. - Although it can cause gastric outlet obstruction, it is **less common** than pyloric stenosis as the cause in this age group. *Duodenal atresia* - This condition is a complete blockage of the duodenum and typically presents with **bilious vomiting** within the **first 24-48 hours of life**. - The onset of symptoms in a 4-week-old, especially with non-bilious vomiting, makes duodenal atresia a less likely diagnosis.

Question 132: A four-month-old baby has cleft lip and palate. How would you manage the baby?

A. Delayed repair of the lip and palate until pre-school age
B. Immediate repair of the lip and palate
C. Delayed repair of the lip and palate until 2 years
D. Immediate repair of the lip (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Immediate repair of the lip*** - A **cleft lip** is typically repaired around **3-6 months of age** ("Rule of 10s": 10 weeks old, 10 pounds weight, 10 g/dL hemoglobin), which aligns with the baby's age of four months, to facilitate feeding and encourage normal facial bone and dental development. - Early lip closure also aids in better **feeding**, improved **speech development**, and addressing initial aesthetic concerns. *Delayed repair of the lip and palate until pre-school age* - Delaying **lip repair** until pre-school age would negatively impact feeding, speech development, and psychosocial well-being, as well as potentially affecting facial growth. - **Palate repair** is generally performed between **9-18 months of age** to optimize speech development, not pre-school age. *Immediate repair of the lip and palate* - While **lip repair** can be done relatively early, **palate repair** is usually delayed until later (9-18 months) to allow for facial growth and to optimize speech outcomes. - Performing both immediately might pose greater surgical risks and interfere with the natural growth of the maxilla and skull base. *Delayed repair of the lip and palate until 2 years* - Delaying **lip repair** until 2 years is too late, as it significantly impacts feeding, speech development, and facial aesthetics during critical developmental periods. - While some **palate repairs** may occur up to 18 months, delaying beyond this, particularly for the lip, is not optimal for function or aesthetics.

Question 133: Optimum age for surgery for a child with cleft lip is:

A. 3 - 6 months (Correct Answer)
B. 4 weeks
C. 4 - 6 weeks
D. 6 - 18 months

Explanation: ***3 - 6 months*** - This age range allows the infant to **grow sufficiently** and gain weight, which is important for tolerating anesthesia and surgery. - It's also early enough to minimize the development of **feeding difficulties** and **speech problems** often associated with unrepaired cleft lips. *4 weeks* - At 4 weeks, infants are generally considered too young and **fragile** for cleft lip repair due to their small size and immature physiological systems. - The risk of **anesthesia-related complications** and surgical stress is higher in very young infants. *4 - 6 weeks* - Similar to 4 weeks, this period is still too early for optimal surgical outcomes, as the infant's facial structures are still developing and they may not have reached an adequate weight. - Waiting a few more months allows for better **wound healing** and reduces the overall risks associated with the procedure. *6 - 18 months* - While cleft lip repair can be done during this period, it's generally considered **later than optimal** for isolated cleft lip. - Delaying surgery beyond 6 months can increase the likelihood of developing **feeding and speech issues**, as well as potential psycho-social impacts.

Question 134: Match the following 1. Hirschsprung's disease 2. Posterior urethral valve 3. Choledochal cyst 4. Intussusception A. Jaundice B. Currant jelly stools C. Distended abdomen D. Oligohydramnios

A. 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
B. 1-A, 2-D, 3-B, 4-C
C. 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B (Correct Answer)
D. 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B

Explanation: ***Correct Answer: 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B*** **Correct Associations:** - **Hirschsprung's disease (1) → Distended abdomen (C)**: Congenital absence of ganglion cells in the distal bowel leads to functional obstruction and subsequent abdominal distension. This is a hallmark presentation in neonates and infants. - **Posterior urethral valve (2) → Oligohydramnios (D)**: Urethral obstruction in utero prevents normal fetal urine output, resulting in decreased amniotic fluid (oligohydramnios). This can be detected on prenatal ultrasound. - **Choledochal cyst (3) → Jaundice (A)**: Congenital dilatation of the bile ducts causes biliary obstruction, presenting with jaundice as part of the classic triad (jaundice, abdominal mass, and pain). - **Intussusception (4) → Currant jelly stools (B)**: Telescoping of bowel causes mucosal ischemia and venous congestion, leading to bloody mucoid stools with characteristic "currant jelly" appearance. This is a pathognomonic feature. *Incorrect: 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A* - Incorrectly associates choledochal cyst with currant jelly stools (which is specific to intussusception) and intussusception with jaundice (which indicates biliary pathology). *Incorrect: 1-A, 2-D, 3-B, 4-C* - Wrongly links Hirschsprung's disease with jaundice instead of its characteristic abdominal distension, and misidentifies intussusception's primary feature. *Incorrect: 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B* - Swaps the associations between Hirschsprung's disease and PUV. Oligohydramnios is specific to urinary tract obstruction (PUV), not intestinal pathology (Hirschsprung's).

Question 135: Metabolic abnormalities associated with Congenital Pyloric Stenosis in the early phase include all EXCEPT:

A. Aciduria (Correct Answer)
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypochloremia
D. None of the options

Explanation: ***Aciduria*** - In the early phase of congenital pyloric stenosis, **persistent vomiting** leads to loss of gastric acid (HCl), causing **hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis**. - Initially, the kidneys excrete **alkaline urine** (with bicarbonate) to compensate for the alkalosis. - **Paradoxical aciduria** develops later as a compensatory mechanism when severe volume depletion and hypokalemia persist, NOT in the early phase. - Therefore, aciduria is the correct answer as it is **NOT an early metabolic abnormality**. *Hypokalemia* - Loss of gastric fluid containing potassium directly contributes to **potassium depletion**. - Volume depletion triggers **aldosterone secretion**, causing increased renal potassium excretion and sodium retention. - This is a **characteristic early finding** in pyloric stenosis. *Hypochloremia* - Persistent vomiting results in significant loss of **hydrochloric acid (HCl)** from the stomach. - This directly depletes chloride ions, causing **hypochloremia**. - This is a **hallmark early finding**, part of the classic hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis. *None of the options* - This is incorrect because **aciduria is indeed NOT an early finding** (it is a late/paradoxical finding). - Since the question asks for the exception using "EXCEPT," and aciduria correctly represents what is NOT seen early, this option is wrong.

Question 136: A child is being assessed for possible intussusception; which of the following would be LEAST likely to provide valuable information?

A. Pain pattern
B. Family history (Correct Answer)
C. Abdominal palpation
D. Stool inspection

Explanation: ***Family history*** - Intussusception is typically an **acute pediatric condition** with no strong genetic predisposition. - While certain genetic syndromes can increase risk, general family history of other conditions is **not directly relevant** to confirming or ruling out intussusception. *Pain pattern* - The classic **intermittent, colicky abdominal pain** that recurs every 15-20 minutes is a hallmark symptom of intussusception. - This pattern provides crucial diagnostic information about the **bowel telescoping and transient obstruction**. *Abdominal palpation* - Palpation can reveal a **sausage-shaped abdominal mass**, especially in the right upper quadrant, which is a classic physical finding. - Tenderness, distension, and signs of peritonitis can also be detected, indicating **bowel obstruction or perforation**. *Stool inspection* - The presence of "**currant jelly stool**" (blood and mucus) is a highly characteristic sign of intussusception, resulting from venous congestion and sloughing of the intestinal mucosa. - This finding provides clear evidence of **intestinal ischemia and bleeding**.

Question 137: Which one of the following is the LEAST consistent with a diagnosis of intussusception?

A. Intermittent colicky abdominal pain, interspersed with symptom-free periods
B. Normal plain films of the abdomen
C. Previously healthy 9-year-old child
D. Grossly normal appearing stool (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Grossly normal appearing stool*** - The classic presentation of intussusception often includes **"currant jelly" stool**, which is a mixture of blood and mucus, reflecting compromised bowel viability and mucosal shedding. - Therefore, *grossly normal appearing stool* is **least consistent** with intussusception. *Intermittent colicky abdominal pain, interspersed with symptom-free periods* - This pattern of pain is highly characteristic of intussusception, where the telescoping bowel causes episodes of **severe pain** followed by periods of relative calm as the intussusception temporarily reduces or relaxes. - The pain is due to bowel obstruction and ischemia as the mesentery is dragged into the intussusception. *Normal plain films of the abdomen* - While plain films can sometimes show signs like a **"target sign"** or **dilated bowel loops**, they are often non-specific or even normal in early intussusception, especially since the diagnosis is typically made with ultrasound. - A normal plain film does not rule out intussusception and is thus not the *least* consistent finding. *Previously healthy 9-year-old child* - Intussusception usually occurs in **infants and toddlers** (3 to 36 months of age), often with no identifiable lead point. - In older children, intussusception is less common and usually has a **pathological lead point** (e.g., Meckel's diverticulum, polyp, lymphoma) that triggers the telescoping, making the case less typical but not inconsistent.

Question 138: In a case of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, which of the following metabolic disturbances are found?

A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Metabolic alkalosis with alkaline urine
D. Metabolic alkalosis with paradoxical aciduria (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Metabolic alkalosis with paradoxical aciduria*** - Profound **vomiting** from pyloric stenosis leads to the loss of **gastric acid** (HCl), resulting in **metabolic alkalosis**. - The kidneys attempt to conserve sodium and water in response to ongoing fluid loss, leading to increased reabsorption of bicarbonate and excretion of hydrogen ions, resulting in a **paradoxical aciduria** despite systemic alkalosis. *Metabolic acidosis* - This condition is characterized by a **low pH** and **low bicarbonate** concentration in the blood. - It is typically caused by conditions like **diabetic ketoacidosis** or **lactic acidosis**, not the loss of stomach acid from vomiting. *Respiratory alkalosis* - This occurs due to **hyperventilation**, which causes an excessive elimination of **carbon dioxide** and a subsequent increase in blood pH. - It is not directly associated with the fluid and electrolyte imbalances seen in hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. *Metabolic alkalosis with alkaline urine* - While metabolic alkalosis is correct, **alkaline urine** would imply the kidneys are appropriately compensating by excreting excess bicarbonate. - In hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, the severe volume depletion triggers a compensatory mechanism in the kidneys causing hydrogen ion excretion leading to **acidic urine**, despite systemic alkalosis.

Question 139: A one-month-old female child has a swelling over the back in the sacral region. There is no cough impulse in the swelling. X-ray examination shows erosion of the coccyx. The most likely clinical diagnosis would be -

A. Lipoma
B. Meningocele
C. Sacro-coccygeal teratoma (Correct Answer)
D. Neurofibroma

Explanation: ***Sacro-coccygeal teratoma*** - The presence of a swelling in the **sacral region** with **erosion of the coccyx** in a one-month-old infant is highly suggestive of a sacro-coccygeal teratoma. - The absence of a **cough impulse** helps rule out conditions with a neural connection that would transmit increased intracranial pressure to the swelling. *Lipoma* - A lipoma is a benign tumor of **fat cells** and typically does not cause **bone erosion**. - While it can be a soft swelling, its clinical presentation would not include **coccygeal erosion**. *Meningocele* - A meningocele is a protrusion of the **meninges** through a defect in the spine, containing **cerebrospinal fluid**. - It would typically exhibit a **cough impulse** due to its connection with the subarachnoid space and increased intracranial pressure. *Neurofibroma* - A neurofibroma is a tumor of the **nerve sheath** and is less common in the sacral region in neonates causing such significant bone destruction. - While it can present as a soft tissue mass, **coccygeal erosion** is not a typical feature unless it is a very aggressive, infiltrative tumor.

Question 140: Esophageal atresia may occur as a part of VACTERL group of anomalies. What does 'TE' stand for?

A. Tracheo-esophageal fistula (Correct Answer)
B. Thoracic empyema
C. Talipes equinovarus
D. Tetralogy of Fallot

Explanation: ***Tracheo-esophageal fistula*** - The 'TE' in **VACTERL** stands for **Tracheo-Esophageal fistula**, which is a common congenital anomaly associated with esophageal atresia. - This condition involves an abnormal connection between the **trachea** and the esophagus, often leading to feeding difficulties and respiratory complications. *Thoracic empyema* - **Thoracic empyema** is an accumulation of pus in the pleural cavity, typically a complication of pneumonia or chest trauma. - It is an acquired condition and not a congenital anomaly part of the **VACTERL** association. *Talipes equinovarus* - **Talipes equinovarus**, also known as **clubfoot**, is a congenital deformity of the foot. - While it is a congenital anomaly, it is represented by the 'L' (Limb defects) in the **VACTERL** association, not 'TE'. *Tetralogy of Fallot* - **Tetralogy of Fallot** is a complex congenital heart defect involving four specific abnormalities. - This condition is represented by the 'C' (Cardiac defects) in the **VACTERL** association, as it's a type of cardiac anomaly.

Practice by Chapter

Surgical Conditions of the Newborn

Practice Questions

Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia

Practice Questions

Esophageal Atresia and Tracheoesophageal Fistula

Practice Questions

Intestinal Atresia and Stenosis

Practice Questions

Malrotation and Volvulus

Practice Questions

Hirschsprung's Disease

Practice Questions

Anorectal Malformations

Practice Questions

Biliary Atresia

Practice Questions

Abdominal Wall Defects

Practice Questions

Inguinal Hernia and Hydrocele

Practice Questions

Intussusception

Practice Questions

Appendicitis in Children

Practice Questions

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