Which of the following are causes of neonatal seizures?
1. Hypernatremia
2. Hypomagnesemia
3. Hypocalcemia
4. Hyponatremia
Q772
One day after delivery, an African American female newborn develops yellow discoloration of the eyes. She was born at term via uncomplicated vaginal delivery and weighed 3.4 kg (7 lb 8 oz). Her mother did not receive prenatal care. Examination shows scleral icterus and mild hepatosplenomegaly. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 10.7 g/dL
Reticulocytes 3.5%
Maternal blood group O, Rh-negative
Fetal blood group A, Rh-negative
Serum bilirubin, total 6.1 mg/dL
Serum bilirubin, direct 0.4 mg/dL
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?
Q773
A boy born vaginally in the 36th week of gestation to a 19-year-old woman (gravida 3, para 1) is assessed on his 2nd day of life. His vitals include: blood pressure is 85/40 mm Hg, pulse is 161/min, axillary temperature is 36.6°C (98.0°F), and respiratory rate is 44/min. He appears to be lethargic; his skin is jaundiced and slight acrocyanosis with several petechiae is noted. Physical examination reveals nystagmus, muffled heart sounds with a continuous murmur, and hepatosplenomegaly. The boy’s birth weight is 1.93 kg (4.25 lb) and Apgar scores at the 1st and 5th minutes were 5 and 8, respectively. His mother is unaware of her immunization status and did not receive any antenatal care. She denies any history of infection, medication use, or alcohol or illicit substance use during pregnancy. Serology for suspected congenital TORCH infection shows the following results:
Anti-toxoplasma gondii IgM Negative
Anti-toxoplasma gondii IgG Positive
Anti-CMV IgM Negative
Anti-CMV IgG Positive
Anti-Rubella IgM Positive
Anti-Rubella IgG Positive
Anti-HSV IgM Negative
Anti-HSV IgG Negative
Which cardiac abnormality would be expected in this infant on echocardiography?
Q774
A newborn loses maximum heat from:
Q775
Most common cause of cholestatic jaundice in newborn is
Q776
Compression ventilation ratio in case of Neonatal CPR:
Q777
Differential cyanosis occurs in which of the following diseases:
Q778
Most common cause of HIV infection in infant is –
Q779
Hypoglycemia in infants more than 24 hours of age is defined as blood glucose levels less than
Q780
Which test is used to assess Neonatal hearing loss?
Neonatology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 771: Which of the following are causes of neonatal seizures?
1. Hypernatremia
2. Hypomagnesemia
3. Hypocalcemia
4. Hyponatremia
A. 2,4 only
B. 1, 3, 4 only
C. 1, 2, 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***1, 2, 3, and 4***
- **All listed electrolyte imbalances** can disrupt neuronal function and lead to neonatal seizures.
- **Severe shifts** in sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels directly impact neuronal excitability.
*2, 4 only*
- This option is incorrect because **hypernatremia** and **hypocalcemia** are also significant causes of neonatal seizures.
- Electrolyte disturbances such as **hypomagnesium** and **hyponatremia** can cause neonatal seizures, but they are not the only ones.
*1, 3, 4 only*
- This choice is incorrect as it **excludes hypomagnesemia**, which is a known cause of neonatal seizures.
- **Severely deranged sodium and calcium levels** are important causes, but magnesium disturbances also contribute.
*1, 2, 3 only*
- This option is incorrect because **hyponatremia** is a well-established cause of neonatal seizures.
- While hypernatremia, hypomagnesemia, and hypocalcemia can cause seizures, **hyponatremia** can also lead to cerebral edema and subsequent seizure activity.
Question 772: One day after delivery, an African American female newborn develops yellow discoloration of the eyes. She was born at term via uncomplicated vaginal delivery and weighed 3.4 kg (7 lb 8 oz). Her mother did not receive prenatal care. Examination shows scleral icterus and mild hepatosplenomegaly. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 10.7 g/dL
Reticulocytes 3.5%
Maternal blood group O, Rh-negative
Fetal blood group A, Rh-negative
Serum bilirubin, total 6.1 mg/dL
Serum bilirubin, direct 0.4 mg/dL
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?
A. Transfer of Anti-A antibodies (Correct Answer)
B. Binding of Rhesus immune globulins
C. Viral infiltration of the bone marrow
D. Polymerization of deoxygenated hemoglobin
Explanation: ***Transfer of Anti-A antibodies***
- The mother is **blood group O**, which naturally produces **anti-A and anti-B antibodies**. Since the infant is **blood group A**, these maternal *IgG antibodies* can cross the placenta and cause **hemolysis** in the infant [1], [2].
- This leads to **neonatal jaundice** (due to increased bilirubin from hemolysis) and **anemia** (hemoglobin 10.7 g/dL), with a compensatory **reticulocytosis** (3.5%) [1]. The **splenomegaly** can also be attributed to increased red blood cell destruction [3].
*Binding of Rhesus immune globulins*
- The mother is **Rh-negative** and the infant is also **Rh-negative**. Therefore, **Rh incompatibility** is not the cause of the hemolytic disease in this newborn [1].
- **Rhesus immune globulin** is given to **Rh-negative mothers** to prevent alloimmunization against **Rh-positive fetal red blood cells**, which is not relevant here.
*Viral infiltration of the bone marrow*
- While **viral infections** can cause **hepatosplenomegaly** and **anemia**, they typically suppress red blood cell production, leading to a **low reticulocyte count**, not the **elevated reticulocyte count** seen in this infant.
- **Jaundice** associated with viral infections is usually due to **hepatitis** (elevated direct bilirubin), which is not the primary pattern shown here [3].
*Polymerization of deoxygenated hemoglobin*
- This process is characteristic of **sickle cell disease**, where **sickle hemoglobin (HbS)** polymerizes, causing red blood cell sickling.
- While it can cause **anemia** and **splenomegaly**, it does not typically present as **acute severe jaundice** in the newborn period and is not associated with **ABO incompatibility**.
Question 773: A boy born vaginally in the 36th week of gestation to a 19-year-old woman (gravida 3, para 1) is assessed on his 2nd day of life. His vitals include: blood pressure is 85/40 mm Hg, pulse is 161/min, axillary temperature is 36.6°C (98.0°F), and respiratory rate is 44/min. He appears to be lethargic; his skin is jaundiced and slight acrocyanosis with several petechiae is noted. Physical examination reveals nystagmus, muffled heart sounds with a continuous murmur, and hepatosplenomegaly. The boy’s birth weight is 1.93 kg (4.25 lb) and Apgar scores at the 1st and 5th minutes were 5 and 8, respectively. His mother is unaware of her immunization status and did not receive any antenatal care. She denies any history of infection, medication use, or alcohol or illicit substance use during pregnancy. Serology for suspected congenital TORCH infection shows the following results:
Anti-toxoplasma gondii IgM Negative
Anti-toxoplasma gondii IgG Positive
Anti-CMV IgM Negative
Anti-CMV IgG Positive
Anti-Rubella IgM Positive
Anti-Rubella IgG Positive
Anti-HSV IgM Negative
Anti-HSV IgG Negative
Which cardiac abnormality would be expected in this infant on echocardiography?
A. Pulmonary valve stenosis
B. Patent ductus arteriosus (Correct Answer)
C. Atrial septal defect
D. Atrialization of the right ventricle
Explanation: ***Patent ductus arteriosus***
* The clinical presentation with **jaundice**, **petechiae**, **hepatosplenomegaly**, and **positive anti-Rubella IgM and IgG** strongly indicates **congenital rubella syndrome**. A continuous murmur is also characteristic.
* **Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)** is a classic cardiac manifestation of **congenital rubella infection**, along with pulmonary artery hypoplasia.
*Pulmonary valve stenosis*
* While pulmonary valve stenosis can occur congenitally, it is more commonly associated with conditions like **Noonan syndrome** or isolated defects, not typically **congenital rubella syndrome**.
* The continuous murmur described is more consistent with a PDA rather than the typical ejection click and crescendo-decrescendo murmur of pulmonary stenosis.
*Atrial septal defect*
* An **atrial septal defect (ASD)** is a common congenital heart defect, but it is not specifically or commonly associated with **congenital rubella syndrome**.
* ASD typically presents with a **fixed split second heart sound** and usually a systolic murmur, not a continuous murmur.
*Atrialization of the right ventricle*
* **Atrialization of the right ventricle** is characteristic of **Ebstein's anomaly**, a congenital heart defect affecting the tricuspid valve.
* It is not associated with **congenital rubella infection** and presents with different clinical findings, such as cyanosis due to right-to-left shunting.
Question 774: A newborn loses maximum heat from:
A. Head (Correct Answer)
B. Abdomen
C. Neck
D. Palms & soles
Explanation: ***Head***
- Newborns have a **relatively large head surface area** compared to their total body surface area.
- The head also has a rich **blood supply** and lacks subcutaneous fat for insulation, contributing to significant heat loss through **convection and radiation**.
*Abdomen*
- While the abdomen contributes to heat loss, it is covered by clothing and has a more proportionate surface area to mass ratio compared to the head, making it a **less significant site for maximal heat loss**.
- Heat loss from the abdomen is not as pronounced as from the head due to its **central location** and typically greater insulation.
*Neck*
- The neck's surface area is comparably small, and it is often covered or in close proximity to the body, which helps to **reduce heat loss**.
- It does not possess the same combination of large surface area and lack of insulating fat as the head.
*Palms & soles*
- While palms and soles have a high density of **sweat glands** and can contribute to heat loss through evaporation, their **total surface area is relatively small** in a newborn.
- These areas are less significant for overall maximal heat loss compared to the head due to their limited size.
Question 775: Most common cause of cholestatic jaundice in newborn is
A. Neonatal hepatitis
B. Physiological
C. Choledochal cyst
D. Biliary atresia (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Biliary atresia***
- This is the **most common cause of cholestatic jaundice** requiring surgical intervention in otherwise healthy full-term newborns.
- It involves the **progressive obliteration or absence of extrahepatic bile ducts**, leading to bile flow obstruction, conjugated hyperbilirubinemia, and ultimately liver damage if untreated.
- Incidence is approximately **1 in 10,000-15,000 live births**, and early diagnosis (before 60 days of age) is critical for optimal surgical outcomes with Kasai portoenterostomy.
*Neonatal hepatitis*
- While it can cause **cholestatic jaundice** in newborns, biliary atresia remains the leading **surgical cause** requiring urgent intervention.
- It describes a diverse group of conditions leading to inflammation of the liver, which can be **idiopathic** or caused by infections (TORCH), metabolic disorders, or genetic conditions.
- Unlike biliary atresia, neonatal hepatitis may improve with supportive care and treatment of underlying causes.
*Physiological*
- **Physiological jaundice** is characterized by **unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia** and is typically transient, resolving without intervention.
- It does not cause cholestatic jaundice, which involves **conjugated hyperbilirubinemia** and indicates an underlying pathological process.
*Choledochal cyst*
- A **choledochal cyst** is a congenital dilation of the bile ducts and can cause cholestatic jaundice, but it is a **rarer cause** compared to biliary atresia.
- Symptoms often include an **abdominal mass**, pain, and recurrent cholangitis, which may differ from the typical presentation of early biliary atresia.
Question 776: Compression ventilation ratio in case of Neonatal CPR:
A. 30:2
B. 100:8
C. 3:1 (Correct Answer)
D. 15:2
Explanation: ***3:1***
- In **neonatal CPR**, a compression to ventilation ratio of **3 compressions per 1 breath** is recommended. This ratio prioritizes ventilation due to the most common cause of cardiac arrest in neonates being **hypoxia**.
- This ratio aims to deliver sufficient oxygen while maintaining adequate cardiac output for the unique physiology of newborns.
*30:2*
- A 30:2 ratio is generally recommended for **adult CPR** when a single rescuer is present, as adults often have initial cardiac etiologies.
- This ratio would provide insufficient ventilations for a neonate whose primary arrest cause is typically respiratory.
*100:8*
- This ratio is not a standard recommendation for any age group in Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation guidelines.
- It would lead to an imbalance, offering a disproportionately high number of compressions relative to ventilations, which is not optimal for neonatal resuscitation.
*15:2*
- A 15:2 ratio is typically recommended for **pediatric CPR** when two or more rescuers are present.
- While closer to the neonatal requirement for ventilation, it still does not provide the immediate and frequent ventilations needed for neonates.
Question 777: Differential cyanosis occurs in which of the following diseases:
A. PPHN (Correct Answer)
B. Severe coarctation
C. Interrupted aortic arch
D. All of the options
Explanation: ***PPHN***
- **Persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn (PPHN)** is the **classic cause of differential cyanosis** in neonates.
- High pulmonary vascular resistance leads to **suprasystemic pulmonary artery pressures**, causing **right-to-left shunting** across the **patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)**.
- Desaturated blood from the pulmonary artery shunts into the **descending aorta** (post-ductal), perfusing the lower body and lower extremities with poorly oxygenated blood.
- The upper extremities receive well-oxygenated blood from the **ascending aorta** (pre-ductal), resulting in **higher oxygen saturation in the right hand compared to the feet** (pre-ductal vs. post-ductal saturation difference >10%).
- This is a **pathognomonic finding** in PPHN and helps differentiate it from cyanotic congenital heart disease.
*Incorrect: Severe coarctation*
- **Coarctation of the aorta** causes obstruction to blood flow, leading to **blood pressure differences** and **weak femoral pulses**, but does NOT primarily cause differential cyanosis.
- While it may be associated with differential saturation in rare cases with severe pre-ductal coarctation and right-to-left ductal shunting, this is **not the typical presentation**.
- The hallmark findings are **hypertension in upper extremities** and **hypotension in lower extremities**, not differential oxygenation.
*Incorrect: Interrupted aortic arch*
- While interrupted aortic arch relies on a **PDA for lower body perfusion**, the blood through the ductus is typically **well-oxygenated** unless there are associated complex cardiac defects causing desaturation.
- The typical presentation is **poor perfusion and shock** rather than isolated differential cyanosis.
- Differential cyanosis would only occur in specific anatomical variants with obligatory right-to-left shunting, which is not the standard presentation.
Question 778: Most common cause of HIV infection in infant is –
A. Intrapartum transmission (Correct Answer)
B. Transplacental
C. Breast milk
D. Blood transfusion
Explanation: ***Intrapartum transmission***
- **Intrapartum transmission** (during labor and delivery) accounts for approximately **60-70% of mother-to-child HIV transmission** without interventions, making it the most common single route of HIV infection in infants.
- This occurs when the infant is exposed to maternal blood and bodily fluids during the birth process.
- The risk is highest during vaginal delivery, though transmission can occur with cesarean section as well.
*Transplacental (in utero)*
- **Transplacental transmission** occurs during pregnancy when the virus crosses the placental barrier.
- This accounts for approximately **25-30% of mother-to-child transmission** without interventions.
- While significant, it is less common than transmission during delivery.
*Breast milk*
- **Breastfeeding** can transmit HIV from mother to infant and accounts for approximately **10-15% of MTCT** in the absence of antiretroviral therapy.
- Postnatal transmission through breastfeeding is an important but less common route compared to transmission during the birthing process.
- The risk is cumulative over the duration of breastfeeding.
*Blood transfusion*
- **Blood transfusion** was a significant cause of HIV transmission in the past before routine screening.
- With modern blood safety measures and universal screening of blood products, this route has become extremely rare.
- This is no longer a common cause of HIV infection in infants in countries with proper blood screening protocols.
Question 779: Hypoglycemia in infants more than 24 hours of age is defined as blood glucose levels less than
A. 40 mg/dl
B. 45 mg/dl (Correct Answer)
C. 50 mg/dl
D. 55 mg/dl
Explanation: ***45 mg/dl***
- Hypoglycemia in infants over 24 hours old is defined as a blood glucose level less than **45 mg/dL** due to their increased glucose demands and maturing metabolic systems.
- Maintaining glucose levels above this threshold is crucial to prevent **neurodevelopmental injury** in vulnerable infants.
*40 mg/dl*
- While **40 mg/dL** might be considered critically low, the accepted threshold for hypoglycemia in infants >24 hours old is slightly higher to ensure a wider safety margin.
- Using a lower value could delay intervention, potentially leading to **adverse neurological outcomes**.
*50 mg/dl*
- A blood glucose level of **50 mg/dL** is considered within the normal range for infants older than 24 hours and would not typically warrant intervention for hypoglycemia.
- Setting the threshold too high could lead to **over-diagnosis** and unnecessary treatment.
*55 mg/dl*
- **55 mg/dL** is well above the clinically significant threshold for hypoglycemia in this age group and is generally considered a healthy blood glucose level.
- Using this value as a diagnostic cutoff would result in a significant number of **false positives**.
Question 780: Which test is used to assess Neonatal hearing loss?
A. SISI
B. Rinne's Test
C. Otoacoustic emissions (Correct Answer)
D. Calorie Test
Explanation: ***Otoacoustic emissions***
- **Otoacoustic emissions (OAEs)** are sounds produced by the **cochlea** in response to auditory stimulation and are used for **newborn hearing screening**.
- The presence of OAEs indicates normal function of the **outer hair cells** in the cochlea, suggesting adequate hearing sensitivity.
*SISI*
- The **Short Increment Sensitivity Index (SISI)** test assesses a patient's ability to detect small changes in the intensity of a tone.
- This test is primarily used to differentiate between **normal hearing** and **cochlear hearing loss** in adults, and not for neonatal screening.
*Rinne's Test*
- **Rinne's test** compares **air conduction** and **bone conduction** of sound to evaluate for conductive or sensorineural hearing loss.
- It involves placing a **tuning fork** on the mastoid bone and then next to the ear canal, and is typically performed on cooperative older children and adults.
*Calorie Test*
- The **caloric test** evaluates the function of the **vestibular system** by introducing warm or cold water/air into the ear canal to stimulate the horizontal semicircular canal.
- It assesses **nystagmus** and is used to diagnose **vestibular disorders** and is not a test for hearing.
