Growth and Development — MCQs

A 4-year-old girl is brought to the physician for a painless lump on her neck. She has no history of serious illness and her vital signs are within normal limits. On examination, there is a firm, 2-cm swelling at the midline just below the level of the hyoid bone. The mass moves cranially when she is asked to protrude her tongue. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Q678

Juvenile court deals with cases of children up to the age of:

Q679

All are true about anthropometric measures except

Q680

All of the following are true about cryptorchidism EXCEPT:

Growth and Development Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 671: A 9-month-old infant is brought to you for immunization. The infant has previously received the first dose of OPV and DPT. What will you do ?

A. Give the infant second dose of DPT/OPV (Correct Answer)
B. Give the infant DT/OPV
C. Repeat the first dose counting afresh
D. Give the infant a booster dose of DPT/Polio

Explanation: ***Give the infant second dose of DPT/OPV*** - As per the **Expanded Programme on Immunization (EPI)** guidelines, even if there's a delay, one should **continue the vaccination schedule** from where it left off, rather than restarting. - The 9-month-old is due for the **second dose of DPT and OPV**, as the first dose has already been administered. *Give the infant DT/OPV* - **DT (Diphtheria and Tetanus)** vaccine is generally given to older children who have contraindications to the pertussis component of DPT or as part of a different schedule. - At 9 months, the infant still requires the **pertussis component** for protection against whooping cough. *Repeat the first dose counting afresh* - There is **no clinical or immunological basis** for restarting the vaccination schedule (counting afresh) simply because of a delay. - Antibodies from the first dose are still present and contribute to the immune response upon subsequent doses; hence, previous doses are **considered valid**. *Give the infant a booster dose of DPT/Polio* - A **booster dose** is typically given much later in childhood (e.g., at 18 months or 5 years) to enhance and prolong immunity after the primary series is completed. - The infant first needs to **complete the primary series** of DPT and OPV, which involves a second and third dose.

Question 672: Which of the following genetic disorders leads to intellectual disability?

A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Phenylketonuria (Correct Answer)
C. Sickle cell anaemia
D. Haemophilia

Explanation: **Phenylketonuria** - **Phenylketonuria (PKU)** is an autosomal recessive metabolic disorder where the body cannot properly metabolize **phenylalanine**, an amino acid. - Accumulation of phenylalanine in the brain is neurotoxic and, if left untreated, leads to severe **intellectual disability** and **developmental delay**. *Cystic fibrosis* - Cystic fibrosis primarily affects the **lungs** and **digestive system**, leading to thick, sticky mucus production. - It does **not directly cause mental retardation**; intellectual function is typically normal. *Sickle cell anaemia* - Sickle cell anaemia is a **red blood cell disorder** causing chronic anaemia, pain crises, and organ damage. - It is **not directly associated with mental retardation**, although complications like stroke can indirectly affect cognitive function. *Haemophilia* - Haemophilia is a **bleeding disorder** characterized by a deficiency in clotting factors, leading to prolonged bleeding. - It primarily affects the **blood clotting process** and does **not cause mental retardation**.

Question 673: The congenital abnormality which is invariably lethal is:

A. Transposition of great vessels
B. Anencephaly (Correct Answer)
C. Cleft lip
D. Down Syndrome

Explanation: ***Anencephaly*** - **Anencephaly** is a severe form of **neural tube defect** where the brain and skull do not develop properly, resulting in the absence of a major part of the brain and skull. - Infants born with anencephaly are either stillborn or die shortly after birth due to the lack of vital brain structures, making it an **invariably lethal** condition. *Transposition of great vessel* - **Transposition of the great arteries (TGA)** is a serious congenital heart defect where the two main arteries leaving the heart (aorta and pulmonary artery) are connected to the wrong ventricles. - While TGA is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate medical intervention, including surgery, it is **not invariably lethal** with modern treatment and advances in pediatric cardiology. *Cleft lip* - A **cleft lip** is a birth defect characterized by a split or opening in the upper lip, which may extend into the nose. - While it requires surgical correction and can cause feeding difficulties or speech problems if untreated, it is **not life-threatening** and has no direct impact on infant mortality. *Down Syndrome* - **Down syndrome** (Trisomy 21) is a chromosomal disorder characterized by intellectual disability, distinctive facial features, and often associated with other medical conditions like heart defects or gastrointestinal abnormalities. - Individuals with Down syndrome have a **reduced life expectancy** compared to the general population; however, advancements in medical care have significantly improved their lifespan, and it is **not an invariably lethal** condition.

Question 674: Flattening of the growth curve in the growth chart signifies:

A. Child does not need special care
B. Child is severely malnourished
C. Child is showing signs of growth failure (Correct Answer)
D. Child is on a healthy path

Explanation: ***Child is showing signs of growth failure*** - A **flattening growth curve** indicates a deviation from the expected growth pattern, implying that the child is not growing at a healthy rate. - This pattern is a crucial visual cue on a growth chart that suggests **potential underlying health or nutritional issues** warranting further investigation. *Child does not need special care* - A flattening growth curve is a **red flag** that signifies growth faltering, meaning the child likely *does* need special care or intervention. - It suggests that the child's growth has **stalled or slowed significantly**, deviating from their usual percentile channel. *Child is severely malnourished* - While **severe malnutrition** can lead to a flattening growth curve, it is not the *only* cause; growth failure can stem from various factors, including chronic illness, inadequate caloric intake, or absorption problems. - A flattened curve indicates *growth failure*, which is a broader term, and further assessment is needed to determine if it has progressed to **severe malnutrition**. *Child is on a healthy path* - A **healthy growth path** is characterized by continued growth along a consistent percentile curve, or within a specific range, over time. - A flattening curve indicates a **departure from this healthy trajectory**, suggesting an issue that requires attention rather than a normal developmental course.

Question 675: Which test is not required for Turner mosaic syndrome?

A. Audiometry
B. Oral glucose tolerance test
C. Echo
D. ANA (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***ANA*** - **Antinuclear antibody (ANA)** testing is primarily used for diagnosing autoimmune diseases like **systemic lupus erythematosus** and is not routinely required for the management of Turner mosaic syndrome. - While autoimmune conditions can rarely co-occur, ANA is not a standard screening or diagnostic test for the common complications of Turner syndrome. *Audiometry* - **Audiometry** is recommended for Turner syndrome patients due to an increased risk of **hearing loss**, particularly **sensorineural hearing loss**. - Regular monitoring helps detect and manage hearing impairments early, which can affect development and quality of life. *Oral glucose tolerance test* - Patients with Turner syndrome have an increased risk of developing **glucose intolerance** and **type 2 diabetes mellitus**. - An **oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)** is important for screening and early detection of these metabolic abnormalities. *Echo* - **Echocardiography** is crucial for evaluating potential **cardiovascular abnormalities**, which are common in Turner syndrome. - These can include **bicuspid aortic valve**, **coarctation of the aorta**, and other structural heart defects.

Question 676: At what age does a child attain half-height of the adult height?

A. 32 - 36 months
B. 20 - 24 months (Correct Answer)
C. 12 - 18 months
D. 40 - 48 months

Explanation: ***20 - 24 months*** - A child typically reaches **half of their adult height at approximately 2 years of age**, which corresponds to 20-24 months. - This is a well-established **pediatric growth milestone** used clinically to assess normal growth patterns. - At 2 years, average height is around **85-87 cm**, which represents approximately 50% of average adult height (170-175 cm). - This milestone applies to both boys and girls, though individual variations occur based on genetics and parental height. *32 - 36 months* - By this age (2.5-3 years), a child has already **exceeded half of their adult height**. - Children at this age are typically around **92-96 cm**, which is more than 50% of eventual adult stature. - This represents continued linear growth beyond the 2-year milestone. *12 - 18 months* - At this age, a child is usually around **74-82 cm** tall. - This period is characterized by rapid infant growth, but height attained is **less than half** of eventual adult height. - Represents approximately 40-45% of adult height. *40 - 48 months* - By this age (3.5-4 years), a child has **significantly exceeded half of their adult height**. - Children at this age are typically around **98-105 cm**, representing approximately 55-60% of adult height. - This marks the slower, steady growth phase of early childhood.

Question 677: A 4-year-old girl is brought to the physician for a painless lump on her neck. She has no history of serious illness and her vital signs are within normal limits. On examination, there is a firm, 2-cm swelling at the midline just below the level of the hyoid bone. The mass moves cranially when she is asked to protrude her tongue. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Cystic hygroma
B. Thyroglossal cyst (Correct Answer)
C. Ranula
D. Dermoid cyst

Explanation: Thyroglossal cyst - A midline neck mass that moves cranially with tongue protrusion is the classic presentation of a thyroglossal duct cyst. - These cysts arise from the remnant of the thyroglossal duct, the embryonic tract along which the thyroid gland descends from the foramen cecum to its final position [1]. Cystic hygroma - This is a lymphatic malformation typically appearing as a soft, compressible, transilluminant mass, often in the posterior triangle of the neck. - It does not move with tongue protrusion and is usually not midline. Ranula - A ranula is a mucocele that forms in the floor of the mouth, usually due to obstruction of a sublingual salivary gland. - It presents as a swelling in the oral cavity, below the tongue, and not as an external neck mass. Dermoid cyst - A dermoid cyst in the neck is typically a painless, doughy, subcutaneous mass that is also usually midline but does not move with tongue protrusion. - These cysts are often found above the hyoid bone, unlike the typical position of a thyroglossal cyst.

Question 678: Juvenile court deals with cases of children up to the age of:

A. 21 years
B. 16 years
C. 18 years (Correct Answer)
D. 15 years

Explanation: ***18 years*** - Under the **Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015** in India, a "juvenile" or "child in conflict with law" is defined as a person who has **not completed 18 years of age**. - Juvenile courts (Juvenile Justice Boards) have jurisdiction over individuals who are **under 18 years** at the time the offense is alleged to have been committed. - This is the standard age limit for juvenile justice system in India. *21 years* - This exceeds the age limit for juvenile court jurisdiction in India. - Age 21 has significance for other legal purposes but not for defining a juvenile under the JJ Act. - Once a person attains 18 years, they are tried under regular criminal law. *16 years* - This is below the actual age limit set by the JJ Act, 2015. - The Act specifically defines the upper age limit as 18 years, not 16 years. - A 16 or 17-year-old would still be considered a juvenile under Indian law. *15 years* - This is well below the statutory age limit for juvenile jurisdiction. - Using 15 years as the cutoff would incorrectly exclude 16 and 17-year-olds from juvenile court jurisdiction. - The JJ Act, 2015 clearly establishes 18 years as the threshold.

Question 679: All are true about anthropometric measures except

A. Skinfold thickness is measured in subscapular region
B. Standing height is about 1.7cms less than the recumbent length
C. Birth weight triples by 1yr
D. Weight is measured to the nearest 100gms (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Weight is measured to the nearest 100gms*** - This statement is **INCORRECT** and represents an inadequate level of precision for anthropometric assessment. - **Standard practice in pediatric anthropometry:** - **Infants and young children**: Weight should be measured to the nearest **10 grams (0.01 kg)** for accurate growth monitoring - **Older children**: Weight measured to the nearest **50-100 grams** depending on the scale - **Adults**: Typically measured to the nearest **100 grams** - Since this question is in a pediatric context, stating weight is measured "to the nearest 100gms" is too imprecise and does not meet the standards for accurate **growth monitoring** in children. *Skinfold thickness is measured in subscapular region* - **TRUE statement** - Skinfold thickness is commonly measured at the **subscapular site** (below the inferior angle of the scapula). - Other standard sites include **triceps, biceps, and suprailiac** regions. - These measurements are used to assess **body composition** and estimate body fat percentage. *Standing height is about 1.7cms less than the recumbent length* - **TRUE statement** - Standing height is typically **1.5 to 2.0 cm less** than recumbent (supine) length. - This difference occurs because gravity compresses the **intervertebral discs** and affects spinal curvature when standing. - **1.7 cm is an accurate approximation** within this range. - This is why recumbent length is measured in children <2 years, while standing height is measured in older children. *Birth weight triples by 1yr* - **TRUE statement** - A healthy infant's birth weight typically **triples by 12 months** of age. - Additional growth milestones: Birth weight **doubles by 4-6 months** and **quadruples by 2 years**. - This is a well-established developmental milestone used to assess **normal growth and nutrition** in infants.

Question 680: All of the following are true about cryptorchidism EXCEPT:

A. Contralateral testis is also at risk
B. Orchidopexy reduces the risk of malignancy (Correct Answer)
C. Seminoma is the most common tumor
D. Cryptorchidism is a risk factor for testicular tumor

Explanation: ***Cryptorchidism is a risk factor for testicular tumor*** - **Cryptorchidism**, or undescended testes, is a well-established risk factor for developing **testicular germ cell tumors**. This risk is 3- to 14-fold higher in affected individuals. - The increased risk is thought to be due to the **abnormal temperature environment** and intrinsic cellular abnormalities of the maldescended testis, leading to malignant transformation. *Contralateral testis is also at risk* - While the undescended testis has a significantly higher risk, the **contralateral (normally descended) testis** also has an elevated risk for developing a testicular tumor, though to a lesser extent. - This suggests that factors other than just temperature (e.g., genetic predisposition or inherent cellular abnormalities) play a role in the increased tumor risk. *Seminoma is the most common tumor* - **Seminoma** is indeed the most common type of testicular germ cell tumor overall, accounting for approximately 50% of all testicular cancers. - In cases of cryptorchidism, while seminoma is common, **non-seminomatous germ cell tumors (NSGCTs)** may also be more prevalent than in the general population. *Orchidopexy reduces the risk of malignancy* - **Orchidopexy** (surgical correction of cryptorchidism) can make the testis more accessible for examination and may improve fertility, but it **does not eliminate** the increased risk of malignancy. - The risk of developing testicular cancer remains elevated even after orchidopexy, especially if performed after puberty, as the cellular changes predisposing to malignancy may have already occurred.

Practice by Chapter

Normal Growth Parameters

Practice Questions

Developmental Milestones

Practice Questions

Puberty and Adolescent Development

Practice Questions

Growth Disorders

Practice Questions

Failure to Thrive

Practice Questions

Developmental Screening and Assessment

Practice Questions

Developmental Delays

Practice Questions

Growth Charts and Monitoring

Practice Questions

Short Stature

Practice Questions

Tall Stature

Practice Questions

Precocious and Delayed Puberty

Practice Questions

Psychosocial Development

Practice Questions

Want unlimited practice?

Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.

Start For Free