Endocrine Emergencies — MCQs
Fluid of choice for shock in a child with severe acute malnutrition + hypoglycemia
A patient with DKA has a pH of 7.1, Na 130, and K 5.5. What is the best initial treatment?
Which of the following is a common finding in patients with Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion (SIADH)?
Which of the following is not true about syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)?
A 37-week small-for-date neonate is most likely to develop
A child presented to the casualty department with fever, unconsciousness, and papilledema. What is the next step?
A 4-year-old admitted in ward with pneumonia. He develops sudden onset of breathlessness. What is the next step in management?
The image shows a child with virilisation and clitoromegaly. What laboratory finding is typical for this condition, assuming the most common enzyme defect?
A neonate presents with the condition shown in the image below. This condition has all of the following features EXCEPT:
A 3-week-old female infant presents with ambiguous genitalia and hyperpigmentation of the skin. Laboratory findings include hyponatremia and hyperkalemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Endocrine Emergencies Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Fluid of choice for shock in a child with severe acute malnutrition + hypoglycemia
- A. Normal saline
- B. Ringer lactate
- C. 10% dextrose
- D. Ringer lactate + 5% dextrose (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Ringer lactate + 5% dextrose*** - This combination provides both **electrolytes** (from Ringer lactate) to help correct **shock** and **glucose** (from 5% dextrose) to address **hypoglycemia** in a child with severe acute malnutrition (SAM). - Patients with SAM are at a high risk of **hypoglycemia** during shock, making glucose supplementation crucial. *Normal saline* - While suitable for initial fluid resuscitation in shock, it does **not contain glucose** and would not address the concomitant hypoglycemia. - Excessive use of normal saline can also lead to **hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis**, which is undesirable in already compromised patients. *Ringer lactate* - Ringer lactate provides **electrolytes** and is a good crystalloid for shock resuscitation, but it **lacks glucose** to correct hypoglycemia. - In SAM patients, where energy stores are depleted, simply providing Ringer lactate might not be sufficient to prevent or treat hypoglycemia. *10% dextrose* - 10% dextrose would effectively treat **hypoglycemia** but is not an appropriate fluid for fluid resuscitation in **shock**. - It would not adequately expand the intravascular volume or provide the necessary electrolytes for managing shock alone.
Question 2: A patient with DKA has a pH of 7.1, Na 130, and K 5.5. What is the best initial treatment?
- A. IV insulin
- B. IV fluids (Correct Answer)
- C. IV potassium
- D. IV bicarbonate
Explanation: ***IV fluids*** - Initial management of **diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)** prioritizes aggressive **intravenous fluid resuscitation** to correct dehydration and improve renal perfusion, thereby facilitating ketone and glucose excretion [1]. - This step is critical before insulin administration to prevent rapid drops in osmolality, which can lead to **cerebral edema** [2]. *IV insulin* - While critical for resolving DKA by stopping ketone production and lowering glucose, **insulin is typically started after initial fluid resuscitation** and only once potassium levels are stable or >3.3 mEq/L to prevent hypokalemia. - Early insulin without adequate fluid replacement can worsen dehydration and increase the risk of **cerebral edema**. *IV potassium* - Although DKA patients are typically **potassium-depleted**, despite what appears to be normal or high serum potassium due to extracellular shift, IV potassium replacement is usually initiated only once serum potassium falls below 5.3 mEq/L and after the start of insulin, which drives potassium into cells [1]. - Administering potassium too early without baseline potassium re-evaluation after initial fluid resuscitation could lead to **hyperkalemia** if the initial high level is truly representative. *IV bicarbonate* - Bicarbonate therapy for DKA is controversial and generally **not recommended** unless the pH is extremely low, typically < 6.9, or in cases of severe cardiovascular instability. - Rapid correction of acidosis can lead to **cerebral edema**, **rebound metabolic alkalosis**, paradoxical central nervous system acidosis, and worsening hypokalemia.
Question 3: Which of the following is a common finding in patients with Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion (SIADH)?
- A. Ascites
- B. Normal BP (Correct Answer)
- C. Generalized edema
- D. Dry mucous membrane
Explanation: ***Normal BP*** - In SIADH, patients are typically **euvolemic** due to the primary issue being water retention rather than salt retention or frank dehydration [2]. - While hyponatremia occurs, the body's compensatory mechanisms usually prevent significant changes in blood pressure, maintaining it within the **normal range**. *Generalized edema* - Generalized edema is uncommon in SIADH because the excessive water retention is initially within the **intravascular compartment**, and the body attempts to excrete the additional volume of water [1]. - Although the patient is effectively retaining water, the osmolality is low, leading to fluid shifts rather than overt edema unless severe, protracted fluid overload occurs. *Ascites* - **Ascites**, which is the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity, is not a characteristic feature of SIADH [2]. - Ascites is more commonly associated with conditions like **liver cirrhosis**, heart failure, or malignancy. *Dry mucous membrane* - **Dry mucous membranes** are a sign of dehydration and fluid volume deficit. - In contrast, SIADH involves **fluid overload** (though euvolemic), making dry mucous membranes an unlikely finding [2].
Question 4: Which of the following is not true about syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)?
- A. Patient can be clinically euvolemic to hypovolemic
- B. Urine osmolality >100 mOsm/kg
- C. Urinary sodium <20 mEq/L (Correct Answer)
- D. Serum sodium <135 mEq/L
Explanation: ***Urinary sodium <20 mEq/L*** - In **SIADH**, the inappropriate secretion of ADH leads to increased water reabsorption, causing **dilutional hyponatremia**. [1] - The kidneys respond by trying to excrete excess water and dilute the urine, leading to **increased urinary sodium concentration**, typically *greater than* 20 mEq/L. *Patient can be clinically euvolemic to hypovolemic* - Patients with **SIADH** are typically **euvolemic** because the excess water is retained intracellularly and extracellularly in balanced proportions, without significant edema or dehydration. [1] - While fluid retention occurs, it's not enough to cause significant clinical volume overload, and they are never truly hypovolemic. *Urine osmolality >100 mOsm/kg* - In **SIADH**, the continued action of **ADH** despite hypotonicity results in the reabsorption of water, leading to the production of **concentrated urine**. [1] - This elevated urine osmolality, typically **greater than 100 mOsm/kg**, indicates an inability to adequately excrete free water. [1] *Serum sodium <135 mEq/L* - **SIADH** is defined by **hyponatremia**, a serum sodium concentration **below 135 mEq/L**, due to the excessive retention of water. - This dilutes the extracellular fluid, leading to a reduction in the relative concentration of sodium.
Question 5: A 37-week small-for-date neonate is most likely to develop
- A. Hypoglycaemia (Correct Answer)
- B. Hyaline membrane disease
- C. Hypocalcaemia
- D. Hypothermia
Explanation: ***Hypoglycaemia*** - **Small-for-date** neonates have reduced **glycogen stores** due to chronic fetal stress or placental insufficiency. - Their increased metabolic demands relative to limited energy reserves make them prone to **low blood glucose**. - This is the **most immediate metabolic complication** requiring urgent screening and management. *Hyaline membrane disease* - This condition, also known as **respiratory distress syndrome**, primarily affects **premature neonates** due to surfactant deficiency. - **Small-for-date infants** at term (37 weeks) typically have **accelerated lung maturity** due to chronic intrauterine stress, making them **less susceptible** to RDS compared to appropriately grown preterm infants. *Hypocalcaemia* - While neonates can experience hypocalcemia, it is particularly common in infants of **diabetic mothers**, those with **asphyxia**, or those born **prematurely**. - Small-for-date status alone isn't the primary risk factor for **neonatal hypocalcaemia**. *Hypothermia* - **Small-for-date** infants have a larger **surface area to body mass ratio** and reduced **subcutaneous fat**, which significantly increases heat loss. - This is indeed a **major risk** requiring immediate attention at birth (thermal protection, skin-to-skin care). - However, **hypoglycemia** is considered the **most characteristic metabolic derangement** and "most likely" complication specifically associated with SGA status, making it the best answer for this question.
Question 6: A child presented to the casualty department with fever, unconsciousness, and papilledema. What is the next step?
- A. Oxygenation
- B. Intubation (Correct Answer)
- C. CT scan
- D. All of the options
Explanation: **Intubation** - The presence of **unconsciousness** indicates a compromised airway and breathing, making immediate **airway management** and **ventilatory support** a priority. - Papilledema, fever, and unconsciousness suggest increased **intracranial pressure** which can lead to brainstem herniation and respiratory arrest, necessitating **controlled ventilation** to reduce CO2 and ICP. *Oxygenation* - While **oxygenation** is critical, it is often insufficient alone in an unconscious patient with a compromised airway. - **Intubation** ensures a patent airway and delivers controlled oxygenation and ventilation more effectively than oxygenation via mask in this situation. *CT scan* - A **CT scan** is a diagnostic tool, but it should only be performed after the patient is **stabilized** hemodynamically and respiratory-wise. - Transporting an **unconscious** patient with potential increased ICP for a CT scan without securing the airway carries significant risks. *All of the options* - While all listed steps are important in managing a child with these symptoms, **intubation** (airway and breathing stabilization) is the **most immediate and critical next step**. - The sequence of medical interventions follows the **ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation)** protocol, making airway management the top priority before diagnostics or other treatments.
Question 7: A 4-year-old admitted in ward with pneumonia. He develops sudden onset of breathlessness. What is the next step in management?
- A. Intercostal drainage tube insertion
- B. Emergency needle thoracostomy (Correct Answer)
- C. Decrease mechanical ventilation setting
- D. Increase mechanical ventilation setting
Explanation: ***Emergency needle thoracostomy*** - This patient, a 4-year-old with pneumonia and sudden breathlessness, likely has a **tension pneumothorax**, which is a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate decompression. The chest X-ray shows a collapsed right lung and a mediastinal shift, consistent with tension pneumothorax. - An **emergency needle thoracostomy** (needle decompression) is the immediate life-saving procedure to relieve the pressure in a tension pneumothorax before more definitive treatment can be initiated. - Performed by inserting a large-bore needle (14-16G) into the **2nd intercostal space, mid-clavicular line** on the affected side. *Intercostal drainage tube insertion* - While an intercostal drainage tube (chest tube) is the definitive treatment for pneumothorax, it takes more time to insert and is not the immediate first step for a **tension pneumothorax** in an unstable patient. - The delay in performing needle decompression could be fatal in a rapidly deteriorating patient with tension pneumothorax. *Decrease mechanical ventilation setting* - Decreasing mechanical ventilation settings would not address the underlying pathology of a tension pneumothorax, which is trapped air causing lung collapse and mediastinal shift. - This action could further compromise the patient's respiratory status if the pneumothorax is severe and the patient is already hypoxemic. *Increase mechanical ventilation setting* - Increasing mechanical ventilation settings would likely worsen a **tension pneumothorax** by forcing more air into the pleural space and increasing intrathoracic pressure. - This would further compromise venous return to the heart and reduce cardiac output, rapidly leading to **cardiovascular collapse**.
Question 8: The image shows a child with virilisation and clitoromegaly. What laboratory finding is typical for this condition, assuming the most common enzyme defect?
- A. Low urinary sodium
- B. Increased plasma cortisol
- C. Increased urinary sodium (Correct Answer)
- D. Increased aldosterone
Explanation: ***Increased urinary sodium*** - **Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)** due to **21-hydroxylase deficiency** is the most common cause of virilization and clitoromegaly in female infants, accounting for >90% of CAH cases. - This enzyme defect blocks the conversion of 17-hydroxyprogesterone to 11-deoxycortisol, impairing both **cortisol and aldosterone synthesis**. - The lack of **aldosterone** (mineralocorticoid) results in a **salt-wasting crisis** with renal sodium loss, leading to **hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and inappropriately elevated urinary sodium excretion** despite low serum sodium. - Among the given options, increased urinary sodium is the characteristic laboratory finding of the salt-wasting form (seen in ~75% of 21-hydroxylase deficiency cases). *Low urinary sodium* - Low urinary sodium would suggest effective renal sodium retention with intact aldosterone function. - This is contrary to the aldosterone deficiency seen in salt-wasting CAH, where the kidneys cannot retain sodium appropriately. *Increased plasma cortisol* - In 21-hydroxylase deficiency, the enzyme block **prevents cortisol synthesis**, leading to **decreased plasma cortisol** levels. - The low cortisol triggers increased ACTH secretion, which drives adrenal androgen overproduction (causing virilization) and accumulation of precursors like 17-hydroxyprogesterone. *Increased aldosterone* - **Aldosterone synthesis is severely impaired** in 21-hydroxylase deficiency, leading to **decreased or absent aldosterone** levels. - Increased aldosterone would cause sodium retention and potassium excretion—the opposite of the salt-wasting crisis observed in this condition.
Question 9: A neonate presents with the condition shown in the image below. This condition has all of the following features EXCEPT:
- A. Ectropion
- B. Eclabium
- C. Hard elastic scales over the neck area
- D. Satellite lesions (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Satellite lesions*** - **Satellite lesions** (smaller lesions located near a main rash) are characteristic of certain fungal infections like candidiasis or some viral rashes, but not of **collodion baby/harlequin ichthyosis**, which is suggested by the image. - The image shows features consistent with a severe congenital ichthyosis, where **skin scaling** and **facial deformities** are prominent, not scattered papules or pustules. *Ectropion* - **Ectropion** (eversion of the eyelids) is clearly visible in the image, where the eyelids are pulled outwards, exposing the conjunctiva. - This is a common feature in conditions like **collodion baby** and **harlequin ichthyosis** due to the restrictive outer skin layer. *Eclabium* - **Eclabium** (eversion of the lips) is also distinctly present in the image, with the lips appearing stretched and everted. - This is another characteristic manifestation of severe congenital ichthyosis, resulting from the **tight, hardened skin** around the mouth. *Hard elastic scales over the neck area* - The image shows **thickened, furrowed, and scaly skin** texture, particularly noticeable around the neck area (indicated by the arrow), which aligns with the description of **hard, elastic scales**. - This is a hallmark feature of **ichthyosis**, where there is impaired skin barrier function and excessive scale production.
Question 10: A 3-week-old female infant presents with ambiguous genitalia and hyperpigmentation of the skin. Laboratory findings include hyponatremia and hyperkalemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. 21 hydroxylase deficiency (Correct Answer)
- B. 17 alpha hydroxylase deficiency
- C. 17, 20 lyase deficiency
- D. 11 beta hydroxylase deficiency
Explanation: **Explanation:** The clinical presentation of ambiguous genitalia in a female infant, skin hyperpigmentation, and electrolyte imbalances (hyponatremia and hyperkalemia) is classic for **Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH)**, specifically **21-hydroxylase deficiency**. **1. Why 21-hydroxylase deficiency is correct:** This is the most common cause of CAH (>90%). A deficiency in this enzyme blocks the conversion of progesterone to deoxycorticosterone (mineralocorticoid pathway) and 17-OH progesterone to 11-deoxycortisol (glucocorticoid pathway). * **Mineralocorticoid deficiency:** Leads to "salt-wasting" (hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and hypotension). * **Glucocorticoid deficiency:** Triggers a feedback increase in ACTH, causing **hyperpigmentation** (due to shared precursor with MSH) and adrenal hyperplasia. * **Androgen excess:** Shunting of precursors toward the androgen pathway causes virilization/ambiguous genitalia in females. **2. Why other options are incorrect:** * **11-beta hydroxylase deficiency:** While it causes virilization and hyperpigmentation, it leads to **hypertension** and hypokalemia because 11-deoxycortisol (which builds up) has mineralocorticoid activity. * **17-alpha hydroxylase deficiency:** This results in decreased sex hormones. Females would have normal external genitalia at birth but fail puberty; males would present with ambiguous genitalia/pseudohermaphroditism. It also causes hypertension. * **17, 20 lyase deficiency:** This affects only sex hormone synthesis. It does not cause salt-wasting or hyperpigmentation as cortisol and aldosterone pathways remain intact. **High-Yield Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common enzyme deficiency:** 21-hydroxylase. * **Diagnostic marker:** Elevated **17-hydroxyprogesterone (17-OHP)**. * **Karyotype:** Usually 46, XX in virilized females. * **Treatment:** Glucocorticoid (Hydrocortisone) and Mineralocorticoid (Fludrocortisone) replacement.
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