Sleep Disorders — MCQs
Modafinil is approved by FDA for treatment of all except:
Narcolepsy is associated with?
A 7-year-old girl is reported by the parents as waking up in the night screaming, and she sits up in bed frightened. She does not respond to questions and after 2 or 3 minutes she goes back to sleep. She has no memory of these events the following morning. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A child presents with complaints of bed wetting. What is the first line of treatment?
During evaluation of a child with Down syndrome, the following finding is noted. Identify?
Amount of ORS to be given in the first 4 hours to a child with some dehydration is
Ear lobe creases in a child are commonly associated with which disorder that also presents with macroglossia and macrosomia?
A 5-year-old short stature child is brought for evaluation. Which disease is the most likely diagnosis as depicted by these pictures of the child, foot and retina?
A sick intubated neonate is having bilateral jerk of both right and left upper limbs with some occasional twitching of neck as well. Likely type of seizures:
Hepatitis B vaccine administered at birth is
Sleep Disorders Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Modafinil is approved by FDA for treatment of all except:
- A. Narcolepsy
- B. Shift work sleep disorder (SWSD)
- C. Obstructive sleep apnea syndrome (OSAS)
- D. Lethargy in depression (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Lethargy in depression*** - Modafinil is **not FDA-approved** for treating lethargy or fatigue specifically in the context of depression. Its primary indications are for disorders of excessive daytime sleepiness. - While it may be used off-label in some cases for depression-related fatigue, it lacks formal FDA approval and specific efficacy data for this indication. *Narcolepsy* - Modafinil is **FDA-approved** as a wakefulness-promoting agent for the treatment of excessive daytime sleepiness associated with **narcolepsy**. - It helps reduce the frequency and severity of sleep attacks by promoting wakefulness through effects on **dopamine**, **norepinephrine**, and **histamine** systems in the brain. *Shift work sleep disorder (SWSD)* - Modafinil is **FDA-approved** to improve wakefulness in patients with excessive sleepiness associated with **shift work sleep disorder**. - It helps individuals working non-traditional hours (night shifts, rotating shifts) maintain alertness during their work periods. *Obstructive sleep apnea syndrome (OSAS)* - Modafinil is **FDA-approved** as an **adjunctive treatment** for residual excessive daytime sleepiness in patients with **obstructive sleep apnea/hypopnea syndrome (OSAHS)** who are receiving adequate treatment with CPAP. - It addresses persistent sleepiness that remains even after appropriate primary airway management.
Question 2: Narcolepsy is associated with?
- A. Late age of onset
- B. Hypnagogic hallucination (Correct Answer)
- C. Decreased NREM sleep
- D. Normal sleep architecture
Explanation: ***Hypnagogic hallucination*** - **Hypnagogic hallucinations** are vivid, dream-like perceptual experiences occurring at **sleep onset** and are one of the **classic tetrad features** of narcolepsy. - They occur in **30-60% of narcolepsy patients** and result from the intrusion of **REM sleep phenomena** into the transition from wakefulness to sleep. - These hallucinations reflect the **REM sleep dysregulation** that is central to narcolepsy pathophysiology. - Other tetrad features include **excessive daytime sleepiness, cataplexy, and sleep paralysis**. *Late age of onset* - Narcolepsy typically has an **early age of onset**, most commonly between **10-25 years** (adolescence and young adulthood). - Peak onset is around **15 years of age**. - Late-onset narcolepsy is uncommon and may suggest secondary causes. *Normal sleep architecture* - Narcolepsy is characterized by **disrupted sleep architecture**, not normal architecture. - Key abnormalities include **sleep-onset REM periods (SOREMPs)**, where patients enter REM sleep within **15 minutes** of sleep onset, bypassing normal NREM stages. - Nocturnal sleep is **fragmented** with frequent awakenings. *Decreased NREM sleep* - While narcolepsy involves **REM sleep dysregulation** with premature REM entry, characterizing it simply as "decreased NREM sleep" is not the standard clinical description. - The primary pathology is **abnormal REM sleep timing and distribution**, including SOREMPs during daytime naps and nighttime sleep. - The focus is on **REM sleep intrusion** rather than NREM reduction per se.
Question 3: A 7-year-old girl is reported by the parents as waking up in the night screaming, and she sits up in bed frightened. She does not respond to questions and after 2 or 3 minutes she goes back to sleep. She has no memory of these events the following morning. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Nightmare
- B. Sleep terrors (Correct Answer)
- C. Narcolepsy
- D. Nocturnal seizures
Explanation: ***Sleep terrors*** - **Sleep terrors** are characterized by abrupt awakenings, intense fear and screaming, autonomic arousal, and unresponsiveness, typically occurring during **NREM sleep** in the first third of the night. - The child will have **no memory** of the event the next morning, which is a key diagnostic feature, and they often return to sleep quickly afterward. *Nightmare* - **Nightmares** occur during **REM sleep**, usually in the latter half of the night, and the individual can often recall vivid and frightening details upon waking. - Unlike sleep terrors, individuals experiencing nightmares are typically **responsive to comfort** and fully alert after waking. *Narcolepsy* - **Narcolepsy** is a chronic neurological condition characterized by overwhelming daytime sleepiness and irresistible urges to sleep, often accompanied by **cataplexy**. - It does not involve nocturnal screaming episodes or unresponsiveness followed by a quick return to sleep with no memory. *Nocturnal seizures* - **Nocturnal seizures** can cause nocturnal awakenings with confusion or unusual behaviors, but they often involve **stereotyped movements**, sometimes with motor manifestations or post-ictal confusion that lasts longer than a few minutes. - While there might be no memory of the event, the screaming and frightened demeanor without typical seizure activity make sleep terrors a more likely diagnosis.
Question 4: A child presents with complaints of bed wetting. What is the first line of treatment?
- A. Bed alarm technique (Correct Answer)
- B. Motivational therapy
- C. Oxybutynin
- D. Desmopressin
Explanation: ***Bed alarm technique*** - The **bed alarm technique** is considered the most effective first-line treatment for **nocturnal enuresis** in children. - It works through **classical conditioning**, training the child to wake up in response to bladder fullness. *Motivational therapy* - **Motivational therapy** can be a useful adjunct to other treatments, but it is not typically the sole **first-line therapy** due to varying effectiveness. - It focuses on building the child's confidence and encouraging dryness but does not directly address the physiological aspects of bedwetting. *Oxybutynin* - **Oxybutynin** is an anticholinergic medication that can reduce bladder contractions and increase bladder capacity. - It is usually reserved for cases where **bedwetting alarms** and **desmopressin** have been ineffective, or when there is an identifiable **overactive bladder component**. *Desmopressin* - **Desmopressin** is an antidiuretic hormone analogue that reduces urine production during the night. - While effective, it is often considered a **second-line treatment** after behavioral interventions like the bed alarm, or when rapid but temporary improvement is desired.
Question 5: During evaluation of a child with Down syndrome, the following finding is noted. Identify?
- A. Simian crease (Correct Answer)
- B. Kennedy crease
- C. Sydney line
- D. Sandal gap
Explanation: ***Simian crease*** - The image displays a **single palmar crease** (also known as a simian crease or transverse palmar crease), which is a common physical finding in individuals with **Down syndrome (Trisomy 21)**. - This crease runs straight across the palm, often replacing the usual two major palmar creases. *Kennedy crease* - This is **not a recognized medical term** for a palmar crease or any specific dermatological finding. - The feature shown in the image is a clearly defined, single transverse palmar crease. *Sydney line* - A **Sydney line** is another type of palmar crease abnormality where the proximal transverse crease extends across the entire palm, reaching the ulnar edge. - While it is a variation of palmar creases, the crease in the image appears as a single, bold transverse crease, more consistent with a **simian crease**. *Sandal gap* - A **sandal gap** refers to a wide space between the first and second toes, sometimes seen in newborns, including those with Down syndrome. - This finding relates to the **foot**, not the hand, and is not depicted in the provided image.
Question 6: Amount of ORS to be given in the first 4 hours to a child with some dehydration is
- A. 75 ml/kg body wt. (Correct Answer)
- B. 50 ml/kg body wt.
- C. 100 ml/kg body wt.
- D. 200 ml/kg body wt.
Explanation: ***75 ml/kg body wt.*** - For a child with **some dehydration**, the World Health Organization (WHO) and UNICEF recommend administering **75 mL/kg body weight** of ORS over the first 4 hours as part of Plan B. - This volume is calculated to replenish lost fluids and electrolytes, addressing the estimated fluid deficit in **some dehydration**. *50 ml/kg body wt.* - A dose of **50 mL/kg** is generally insufficient for effective rehydration in a child presenting with **some dehydration**. - This amount might be used in milder cases or for maintenance, but not for initial rehydration in the **first 4 hours** with signs of dehydration. *100 ml/kg body wt.* - Administering **100 mL/kg** body weight is typically used for **severe dehydration** (Plan C) when given as **intravenous fluids**. - For **some dehydration** treated with ORS, the recommended dose is 75 mL/kg, not 100 mL/kg. This higher amount could lead to fluid overload if given orally in the first 4 hours. *200 ml/kg body wt.* - A dose of **200 mL/kg** body weight is excessive and potentially dangerous for a child with **some dehydration**. - Such a large volume could lead to **fluid overload**, electrolyte imbalances, and other complications, especially in young children.
Question 7: Ear lobe creases in a child are commonly associated with which disorder that also presents with macroglossia and macrosomia?
- A. Down syndrome
- B. Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome (Correct Answer)
- C. Turner syndrome
- D. Noonan syndrome
Explanation: ***Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome*** - **Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome** is characterized by conditions such as **macrosomia** (large body size), **macroglossia** (enlarged tongue), **visceromegaly**, and **ear lobe creases** or pits. - It is an overgrowth disorder often associated with an increased risk of certain childhood cancers like **Wilms tumor** and hepatoblastoma. *Down syndrome* - **Down syndrome** (Trisomy 21) presents with distinct facial features like a **flat nasal bridge**, **epicanthal folds**, and a single palmar crease, but **ear lobe creases** are not a primary characteristic. - While **macroglossia** can be seen, **macrosomia** is generally not a feature; instead, individuals with Down syndrome often have growth delays. *Turner syndrome* - **Turner syndrome** (XO karyotype) is characterized by features such as **short stature**, a **webbed neck**, shield chest, and **low-set ears**, but not typically ear lobe creases or macroglossia. - Affected individuals are phenotypically female and experience **gonadal dysgenesis**. *Noonan syndrome* - **Noonan syndrome** shares some features with Turner syndrome, including **short stature**, **webbed neck**, and **pectus excavatum**, but also presents with distinct cardiac defects. - While it can involve various facial dysmorphia, **ear lobe creases**, **macroglossia**, and **macrosomia** are not typically defining characteristics.
Question 8: A 5-year-old short stature child is brought for evaluation. Which disease is the most likely diagnosis as depicted by these pictures of the child, foot and retina?
- A. Prader-Willi syndrome
- B. Alstrom syndrome
- C. Bardet-Biedl syndrome (Correct Answer)
- D. Carpenter syndrome
Explanation: ***Bardet-Biedl syndrome*** - This rare autosomal recessive ciliopathy is characterized by a **classic pentad**: central obesity, **polydactyly**, **retinal dystrophy** (rod-cone dystrophy), renal abnormalities, and hypogonadism. - The combination of **short stature with obesity**, **polydactyly** (clearly visible in the foot image), and **pigmentary retinopathy** (visible in the retinal image) is **pathognomonic** for Bardet-Biedl syndrome. - This is the **only syndrome among the options** that presents with all three clinical features shown in the images. *Prader-Willi syndrome* - Characterized by **hypotonia** in infancy, **hyperphagia** leading to obesity, short stature, and distinct facial features (almond-shaped eyes, narrow forehead). - Does **not present with polydactyly** or the specific type of **retinal dystrophy** seen in Bardet-Biedl syndrome. - Caused by loss of paternally expressed genes on chromosome 15q11-13. *Alstrom syndrome* - Rare autosomal recessive disorder sharing features like obesity and **cone-rod dystrophy** (retinal degeneration). - Distinguished by early-onset **dilated cardiomyopathy**, **progressive hearing loss**, and **type 2 diabetes**. - **Polydactyly is not a feature** of Alstrom syndrome, making it unlikely given the foot abnormality in the image. *Carpenter syndrome* - Rare form of **acrocephalopolysyndactyly** characterized by **craniosynostosis** (premature fusion of skull sutures), distinctive craniofacial anomalies, **polysyndactyly**, and obesity. - While it includes polydactyly, it is distinguished by severe **skull and facial deformities** (tower-shaped skull, flat nasal bridge). - Does **not typically involve retinopathy**, making it inconsistent with the retinal findings shown.
Question 9: A sick intubated neonate is having bilateral jerk of both right and left upper limbs with some occasional twitching of neck as well. Likely type of seizures:
- A. Multifocal clonic (Correct Answer)
- B. Multifocal tonic clonic
- C. Focal tonic
- D. Focal clonic
Explanation: ***Multifocal clonic*** - This description fits **multifocal clonic seizures**, characterized by **migratory clonic activity** observed in different body parts at varying times, sometimes simultaneously. - The **bilateral jerk** of upper limbs and occasional neck twitching point to this pattern, as the involvement is not uniform or generalized, but rather appears in multiple, distinct locations. *Multifocal tonic clonic* - This option incorrectly combines multifocal activity with a **tonic component**, which is described as stiffening or sustained contraction, not just jerking. - While activity may be multifocal, the specific description of "jerk" primarily suggests a **clonic nature**, without a clear tonic phase. *Focal tonic* - **Focal tonic seizures** involve sustained **stiffening or contraction** of muscles in a specific, localized area of the body, which is not described. - The term "jerk" indicates a **clonic movement**, and the involvement of multiple areas (bilateral upper limbs, neck) rules out a single focal onset. *Focal clonic* - **Focal clonic seizures** are characterized by rhythmic jerking movements limited to a **single, localized part** of the body without spreading to other areas. - The presence of jerking in **both upper limbs** and occasional neck twitching indicates activity in multiple sites, not restricted to a single focal area.
Question 10: Hepatitis B vaccine administered at birth is
- A. A pentavalent vaccine
- B. A fixed combination vaccine of Hepatitis B and Hib
- C. A monovalent vaccine of Hepatitis B (Correct Answer)
- D. A combined vaccine of inactivated Polio and Hepatitis B
Explanation: ***A monovalent vaccine of Hepatitis B*** - The **initial dose** of the Hepatitis B vaccine given at birth is a **single-antigen (monovalent)** preparation. It is given as a **standalone vaccine** to ensure prompt protection against Hepatitis B virus. - This early administration is critical for preventing **perinatal transmission** of Hepatitis B from an infected mother to her newborn, and establishing immunity as soon as possible. *A pentavalent vaccine* - **Pentavalent vaccines** typically protect against five different diseases: **Diphtheria, Tetanus, Pertussis (DTP), *Haemophilus influenzae* type b (Hib), and Hepatitis B**. - While Hepatitis B is one component, the vaccine administered at birth is usually monovalent, and the pentavalent vaccine is given later in the infant's immunization schedule. *A fixed combination vaccine of Hepatitis B and Hib* - A fixed combination vaccine of Hepatitis B and **Hib (Haemophilus influenzae type b)** is available and used in some immunization schedules. - However, the **first dose** given at birth is specifically a monovalent Hepatitis B vaccine, not a combined Hib vaccine, to target immediate Hepatitis B protection. *A combined vaccine of inactivated Polio and Hepatitis B* - Combined vaccines that include **inactivated Polio vaccine (IPV)** and **Hepatitis B** do exist but are generally administered later, at 6 weeks and subsequent doses. - The **birth dose** of Hepatitis B vaccine is exclusively for Hepatitis B protection and does not typically include polio antigen.
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