Cardiology Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following manifestations of rheumatic fever disappears completely?

Arthritis. **Explanation:** The correct answer is **Arthritis**. In Acute Rheumatic Fever (ARF), the arthritis is typically a **migratory polyarthritis** involving large joints (knees, ankles, elbows, wrists). The hallmark of this manifestation is that it is **exquisitely responsive to salicylates** and, most importantly, it **leaves no residual deformity**. It resolves completely within weeks, making it the most transient major manifestation. **Analysis of Options:** * **Carditis (Option A):** This is the most serious manifestation and the only one that can lead to **permanent chronic damage**, specifically Rheumatic Heart Disease (RHD). It can result in lifelong valvular scarring (most commonly the mitral valve). * **Chorea (Option B):** Sydenham’s chorea (St. Vitus dance) is a delayed manifestation. While it usually resolves, it can persist for several months and may occasionally recur. It does not leave "permanent" damage like carditis, but arthritis is the classic textbook answer for "disappearing completely" without sequelae. * **Subcutaneous Nodules (Option D):** These are firm, painless nodules over bony prominences. While they eventually disappear, they are strongly associated with severe carditis and are not the defining "reversible" feature compared to the dramatic resolution of arthritis. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Jones Criteria:** Arthritis is the most common major manifestation, while Carditis is the most specific/serious. * **Salicylate Response:** If a patient suspected of ARF does not show dramatic improvement in joint pain within 48–72 hours of starting Aspirin, the diagnosis of ARF should be reconsidered. * **Jaccoud Arthropathy:** A rare, non-erosive chronic joint deformity that can occur after repeated episodes of ARF, but the standard teaching remains that rheumatic arthritis is non-deforming.

Q: What is the characteristic murmur differentiating Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA) from Atrial Septal Defect (ASD)?

Continuous murmur in PDA. **Explanation:** The hallmark of **Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)** is a **continuous machinery-type murmur**, best heard at the left infraclavicular area. This occurs because the pressure in the aorta remains higher than the pressure in the pulmonary artery during both systole and diastole, resulting in a continuous left-to-right shunt. In contrast, an **Atrial Septal Defect (ASD)** typically presents with a **midsystolic flow murmur** (due to increased flow across the pulmonary valve) and a characteristic **fixed, wide splitting of S2**. **Analysis of Options:** * **Option D (Correct):** The continuous nature of the murmur is the pathognomonic clinical feature that distinguishes PDA from most other simple congenital heart defects like ASD or VSD. * **Option A & B (Incorrect):** A wide split of S2 and delayed P2 are classic findings in **ASD**, not PDA. In PDA, the S2 is often obscured by the loud continuous murmur, or there may be "paradoxical splitting" if the shunt is large enough to delay aortic closure. * **Option C (Incorrect):** Accentuation of S1 is typically associated with Mitral Stenosis. In ASD, the S1 is usually normal or split, but not specifically "accentuated" as a differentiating feature from PDA. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **PDA Murmur:** Also known as **Gibson’s murmur**. * **ASD S2:** The "Fixed Wide Split S2" in ASD occurs because the respiratory variations in venous return are equalized between the two atria. * **Management:** Indomethacin or Ibuprofen (NSAIDs) are used to close a PDA in preterms; Prostaglandin E1 (Alprostadil) is used to keep it open in duct-dependent lesions. * **Pulse:** PDA is associated with a **bounding pulse** and wide pulse pressure due to diastolic runoff into the pulmonary artery.

Q: What is the most frequent chromosomal abnormality found in individuals with congenital heart defects?

Trisomy 21. **Explanation:** **Trisomy 21 (Down Syndrome)** is the most common chromosomal abnormality associated with congenital heart defects (CHD). Approximately **40–50%** of children with Down Syndrome are born with a cardiac malformation. The most characteristic lesion is the **Atrioventricular Septal Defect (AVSD)**, specifically the endocardial cushion defect. Due to the high prevalence of Down Syndrome in the general population compared to other trisomies, it remains the leading genetic contributor to CHD. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Trisomy 13 (Patau Syndrome):** While ~80% of these infants have CHD (most commonly VSD, ASD, or PDA), the condition is much rarer and associated with high neonatal mortality, making it less frequent overall than Trisomy 21. * **Trisomy 18 (Edwards Syndrome):** Similar to Trisomy 13, over 90% have CHD (typically VSD or Polyvalvular disease), but the low live-birth prevalence makes it a less frequent cause than Trisomy 21. * **Monosomy X (Turner Syndrome):** Associated with CHD in about 25–30% of cases. The classic lesion is **Bicuspid Aortic Valve** (most common) or **Coarctation of the Aorta**. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common CHD in Down Syndrome:** AVSD (Endocardial cushion defect). * **Most common CHD in Turner Syndrome:** Bicuspid Aortic Valve (Note: Coarctation is the most common *obstructive* lesion). * **Noonan Syndrome:** Associated with **Pulmonary Stenosis** and Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy. * **DiGeorge Syndrome (22q11.2 deletion):** Associated with Conotruncal anomalies (Truncus Arteriosus, Tetralogy of Fallot). * **Williams Syndrome:** Associated with **Supravalvular Aortic Stenosis**.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a feature of arthritis in acute rheumatic fever?

Joint deformities are common sequels. The arthritis of Acute Rheumatic Fever (ARF) is characteristically **non-deforming**. Even without treatment, the inflammation typically resolves within 1–5 weeks without leaving any residual joint damage or chronic sequelae. This distinguishes it from other inflammatory conditions like Rheumatoid Arthritis, which leads to joint erosion and permanent deformity. ### **Analysis of Options** * **A. Elevated ASO titer:** This is a diagnostic requirement [1]. According to the **Jones Criteria**, evidence of a preceding Group A Streptococcal (GAS) infection (e.g., elevated/rising Antistreptolysin O titer) is essential for diagnosis [1]. * **C. Dramatic response to aspirin:** The response to salicylates (Aspirin) or NSAIDs is so rapid and complete (usually within 48 hours) that if a patient does not respond, the diagnosis of ARF should be reconsidered. * **D. Involvement of large joints:** ARF typically presents as a **migratory polyarthritis** affecting large joints such as the knees, ankles, elbows, and wrists. Small joints are rarely involved. ### **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG** * **Jaccoud’s Arthropathy:** While ARF is non-deforming, a rare condition called Jaccoud’s arthropathy (painless loosening of ligaments) can occur after recurrent attacks, but it is functional rather than erosive. * **Jones Criteria (Revised):** Arthritis is a **Major Criterion**. In high-risk populations, even monoarthritis or polyarthralgia can be considered a major criterion. * **Inverse Relationship:** There is often an inverse relationship between the severity of arthritis and the severity of carditis; patients with severe arthritis often have milder carditis [1]. * **Treatment:** Aspirin remains the drug of choice for arthritis, while corticosteroids are reserved for severe carditis.

Q: In which of the following conditions is the left atrium not enlarged?

Atrial septal defect. **Explanation:** The key to understanding chamber enlargement in congenital heart disease lies in the **direction of the shunt** and the **volume of blood** returning to specific chambers. **1. Why Atrial Septal Defect (ASD) is the correct answer:** In a typical secundum ASD, blood shunts from the Left Atrium (LA) to the Right Atrium (RA) due to higher compliance of the right ventricle. While the RA and RV become volume-overloaded and enlarged, the **LA does not enlarge** because it constantly decompresses itself into the RA. In fact, the LA may even be small or normal in size. **2. Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD):** Blood shunts from the LV to the RV, goes to the lungs, and returns via the pulmonary veins to the **LA**. This increased venous return causes LA and LV enlargement (Left-sided volume overload). * **Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA) & Aortopulmonary (AP) Window:** These are "Great Vessel" shunts. Blood shunts from the Aorta to the Pulmonary Artery, travels through the lungs, and returns to the **LA and LV**. Both conditions lead to LA enlargement. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Rule of Thumb:** Any shunt that increases pulmonary blood flow will enlarge the **Left Atrium**, *except* for ASD and Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Connection (TAPVC). * **Radiological Sign:** On a lateral chest X-ray, LA enlargement is best seen as posterior displacement of the esophagus (if barium swallow is used) or the "double atrial shadow" on a PA view. * **ASD Triad:** Enlarged RA, Enlarged RV, and prominent pulmonary arteries with a **normal-sized LA**.

Q: Pulmonary blood flow is increased in all of the following conditions except:

Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF). **Explanation:** The fundamental concept behind this question is the classification of Congenital Heart Diseases (CHD) into **Acyanotic (Left-to-Right shunts)** and **Cyanotic (Right-to-Left shunts)**, and further sub-classifying them based on pulmonary blood flow. **Why Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is the correct answer:** TOF is a cyanotic CHD characterized by four features: VSD, Overriding of aorta, Right Ventricular Hypertrophy, and **Pulmonary Stenosis (PS)**. The pulmonary stenosis acts as a physical obstruction to the outflow of blood from the right ventricle to the lungs. Consequently, blood is shunted right-to-left across the VSD, leading to **decreased pulmonary blood flow** and a "boot-shaped" heart with oligemic lung fields on X-ray. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **ASD & VSD:** These are acyanotic CHDs with left-to-right shunting. Because pressure is higher on the left side of the heart, blood flows back into the right side and is recirculated through the lungs, leading to **increased pulmonary blood flow**. * **TGA:** Although TGA is a cyanotic CHD, it is characterized by **increased pulmonary blood flow**. In TGA, the two circulations are in parallel; the lungs receive a massive volume of blood because there is no outflow obstruction, often leading to early congestive heart failure. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Cyanotic CHD with Decreased Flow:** TOF, Tricuspid Atresia, Ebstein Anomaly. * **Cyanotic CHD with Increased Flow:** TGA, TAPVC, Truncus Arteriosus, Single Ventricle. * **X-ray Findings:** TOF (Boot-shaped heart/Coeur en sabot), TGA (Egg-on-a-string appearance), TAPVC (Snowman/Figure-of-8 appearance). * **Most common cyanotic CHD:** TOF (overall), but TGA is the most common cyanotic CHD presenting in the *neonatal* period.

Q: Which of the following is not a feature of Sydenham's chorea?

Seizures. **Explanation:** **Sydenham’s Chorea** (also known as St. Vitus’ Dance) is a major Jones criterion for **Acute Rheumatic Fever (ARF)**. It results from molecular mimicry where antibodies against Group A Streptococcus cross-react with the **basal ganglia** (specifically the caudate and putamen). **Why Seizures is the correct answer:** Seizures are **not** a feature of Sydenham’s Chorea. The pathology is localized to the basal ganglia, affecting motor control and emotional regulation, but it does not involve the cerebral cortex in a way that triggers epileptiform activity. If a patient with suspected ARF presents with seizures, clinicians should investigate alternative diagnoses like systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) or viral encephalitis. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Hypotonia:** This is a classic finding. Patients often exhibit "milkmaid’s grip" (rhythmic squeezing) and "pendular knee jerks" due to significant muscle hypotonia. * **Unintelligible speech:** Dysarthria is common. The involuntary movements affect the muscles of phonation and the tongue (often resulting in the "darting tongue" or "harlequin tongue" sign), making speech jerky and difficult to understand. * **Emotional lability:** This is frequently the earliest symptom. Children often exhibit inappropriate crying, laughing, or irritability (pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders) before the onset of motor chorea. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Latent Period:** It has the longest latent period of all ARF features (1–6 months after infection). * **Gender:** More common in females and prepubertal children. * **Clinical Signs:** Look for "Pronator sign" (palms turn outward when arms are raised) and "Milkmaid's grip." * **Treatment:** Usually self-limiting; severe cases are treated with **haloperidol**, valproic acid, or phenobarbital. Corticosteroids may hasten recovery.

Q: All of the following features are seen in Kawasaki disease except?

Exudative conjunctivitis. **Explanation:** Kawasaki Disease (KD) is an acute, febrile, medium-vessel vasculitis that primarily affects children under 5 years of age. The diagnosis is clinical, based on the presence of high-grade fever for ≥5 days plus at least 4 out of 5 classic criteria. **Why "Exudative Conjunctivitis" is the correct answer:** In Kawasaki disease, the ocular involvement is characteristically **bilateral, non-exudative conjunctival injection** (sparing the limbus). The absence of discharge or "pus" is a key clinical differentiator from viral or bacterial conjunctivitis. Therefore, the presence of exudate points away from a diagnosis of KD. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Coronary Artery Aneurysms (A):** This is the most serious complication of KD, occurring in 20-25% of untreated cases. It typically develops in the subacute phase (weeks 2–4). * **Red Strawberry Tongue (B):** This is a classic manifestation of oropharyngeal changes, which also include cracked, erythematous lips and diffuse pharyngeal hyperemia. * **Cervical Lymphadenopathy (D):** This is usually unilateral, non-fluctuant, and involves at least one node >1.5 cm in diameter. It is often the least common of the five clinical criteria. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Mnemonic (CRASH and Burn):** **C**onjunctivitis (non-exudative), **R**ash (polymorphous), **A**denopathy (cervical), **S**trawberry tongue, **H**and/foot changes (edema/desquamation), and **Burn** (Fever >5 days). * **Treatment:** IVIG (2g/kg) + High-dose Aspirin. IVIG is most effective when given within the first 10 days to prevent coronary aneurysms. * **Lab Findings:** Elevated ESR/CRP, thrombocytosis (after week 1), and sterile pyuria.

Q: Which of the following statements is true regarding Tetralogy of Fallot?

There is an association with DiGeorge syndrome.. **Explanation:** **Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)** is the most common cyanotic congenital heart disease (CHD) beyond infancy. It consists of four components: VSD, overriding of the aorta, pulmonary stenosis (infundibular), and right ventricular hypertrophy. **Why Option D is Correct:** TOF is strongly associated with chromosomal microdeletions, most notably **22q11.2 deletion (DiGeorge syndrome)**. Approximately 15-25% of TOF patients have this deletion. DiGeorge syndrome presents with the "CATCH-22" mnemonic: Cardiac defects (TOF/Truncus), Abnormal facies, Thymic hypoplasia (T-cell deficiency), Cleft palate, and Hypocalcemia. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Option A:** Cyanosis in TOF is typically **not present at birth**. It usually appears between 3–6 months of age as the infundibular stenosis progresses. If a neonate is cyanotic on day one, think of Transposition of the Great Arteries (TGA). * **Option B:** A **right-sided aortic arch** is seen in approximately **25%** of TOF cases, not 50%. While high-yield, 50% is an overestimation. * **Option C:** During a "Tet spell" (cyanotic spell), the murmur actually becomes **softer or disappears**. This is because the spell is caused by an acute increase in right-to-left shunting due to near-total obstruction of the right ventricular outflow tract (RVOT); thus, flow across the pulmonary valve **decreases**. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **X-ray finding:** "Boot-shaped heart" (Coeur en sabot) due to an upturned apex (RVH) and concave pulmonary segment. * **ECG:** Shows Right Axis Deviation and RVH. * **Management of Tet Spell:** Knee-chest position (increases systemic vascular resistance), Oxygen, Morphine, and Beta-blockers (Propranolol). * **Most important prognostic factor:** The severity of pulmonary stenosis.

Question 1

Which of the following manifestations of rheumatic fever disappears completely?

Accepted Answer

Arthritis

Answer

Carditis

Answer

Chorea

Answer

Subcutaneous nodules

Question 2

What is the characteristic murmur differentiating Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA) from Atrial Septal Defect (ASD)?

Accepted Answer

Continuous murmur in PDA

Answer

Delayed P2 in PDA

Answer

Wide split of S2 in PDA

Answer

Accentuation of S1 in ASD

Question 3

What is the most frequent chromosomal abnormality found in individuals with congenital heart defects?

Accepted Answer

Trisomy 21

Answer

Trisomy 13

Answer

Trisomy 18

Answer

Monosomy X

Question 4

Which of the following is NOT a feature of arthritis in acute rheumatic fever?

Accepted Answer

Joint deformities are common sequels

Answer

Elevated ASO titer

Answer

Dramatic response to aspirin

Answer

Involvement of large joints

Question 5

The severity of cyanosis in Fallot's tetralogy physiology is best determined by which factor?

Accepted Answer

Degree of pulmonary stenosis

Answer

Size of the ventricular septal defect (VSD)

Answer

Degree of aortic overriding

Answer

Degree of right ventricular hypertrophy (RVH)

Question 6

In which of the following conditions is the left atrium not enlarged?

Accepted Answer

Atrial septal defect

Answer

Ventricular septal defect

Answer

Aortopulmonary window

Answer

Patent ductus arteriosus

Question 7

Pulmonary blood flow is increased in all of the following conditions except:

Accepted Answer

Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)

Answer

Atrial septal defect (ASD)

Answer

Ventricular septal defect (VSD)

Answer

Transposition of great arteries (TGA)

Question 8

Which of the following is not a feature of Sydenham's chorea?

Accepted Answer

Seizures

Answer

Hypotonia

Answer

Unintelligible speech

Answer

Emotional lability

Question 9

All of the following features are seen in Kawasaki disease except?

Accepted Answer

Exudative conjunctivitis

Answer

Coronary artery aneurysms

Answer

Red strawberry tongue

Answer

Cervical lymphadenopathy

Question 10

Which of the following statements is true regarding Tetralogy of Fallot?

Accepted Answer

There is an association with DiGeorge syndrome.

Answer

Cyanosis is often present in the first few days of life.

Answer

There is a right-sided aortic arch in about 50% of cases.

Answer

The murmur becomes softer during a cyanotic spell as flow through the pulmonary valve is increased.

Cardiology — MCQs

Cardiology — MCQs

On this page

Practice by Chapter

Want unlimited practice?