Liver Transplantation Pathology — MCQs
Which of the following statements regarding rejection of solid organ transplants is true?
After 4 months of renal transplantation, a patient is likely to develop which infection?
Hyperacute rejection occurs within:-
Acute graft rejection occurs within?
Which of the following statements about transplant rejection reactions is false:
What is the consequence of preformed antibodies in organ transplantation?
Which of the following is a histopathological feature of extrahepatic biliary atresia?
A child presented with microcephaly, hepatomegaly and periventricular calcification. What is the best specimen for diagnosis of CMV by PCR?
In autopsy, which organ is removed with liver?
Which of the following diagnostic tests is most useful in confirming the presence of ascites?
Liver Transplantation Pathology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Which of the following statements regarding rejection of solid organ transplants is true?
- A. Most immunosuppressive medications are used to prevent chronic rejection
- B. The major cause of graft failure is acute rejection
- C. Liver transplants are especially susceptible to hyperacute rejection
- D. Hyperacute rejection begins in the operating room with reperfusion of the transplanted organ (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Hyperacute rejection begins in the operating room with reperfusion of the transplanted organ*** - **Hyperacute rejection** is a rapidly-occurring immune response that starts almost immediately after the transplanted organ is re-vascularized, often while the patient is still in the operating room [1]. - This type of rejection is mediated by **pre-formed antibodies** (e.g., ABO blood group antibodies or anti-HLA antibodies) in the recipient's circulation that bind to antigens on the donor organ's endothelium, leading to massive thrombosis and organ destruction [1]. *Most immunosuppressive medications are used to prevent chronic rejection* - While immunosuppressants play a role in mitigating **chronic rejection**, their primary and most effective targets are **acute rejection episodes** and the initial prevention of organ rejection [2]. - **Chronic rejection** is often a more complex process involving both immune and non-immune factors, and current immunosuppressive regimens are less effective at completely preventing or reversing it compared to acute rejection. *The major cause of graft failure is acute rejection* - In the long term, **chronic rejection** (or chronic allograft dysfunction) is the leading cause of late graft loss, rather than acute rejection. - With advancements in immunosuppression, **acute rejection rates** have significantly decreased, making chronic issues and non-immune factors more prominent in overall graft failure. *Liver transplants are especially susceptible to hyperacute rejection* - **Liver transplants** are notably more tolerant to ABO and HLA mismatches compared to other solid organ transplants (like kidney or heart). - This relative immunotolerance means that **hyperacute rejection** is far less common in liver transplantation. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of the Immune System, pp. 241-242. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. (Basic Pathology) introduces the student to key general principles of pathology, both as a medical science and as a clinical activity with a vital role in patient care. Part 2 (Disease Mechanisms) provides fundamental knowledge about the cellular and molecular processes involved in diseases, providing the rationale for their treatment. Part 3 (Systematic Pathology) deals in detail with specific diseases, with emphasis on the clinically important aspects., pp. 180-181.
Question 2: After 4 months of renal transplantation, a patient is likely to develop which infection?
- A. EBV
- B. CMV (Correct Answer)
- C. Candida
- D. Histoplasma
Explanation: ***CMV*** - **Cytomegalovirus (CMV)** infection is very common in solid organ transplant recipients, particularly in the period between **1 to 6 months post-transplant**, known as the **intermediate period** [1]. - This timing is due to the cumulative effect of **immunosuppression** compromising the patient's ability to control latent viral shedding or newly acquired infection. *EBV* - **Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)** infection is also common in transplant recipients, but it is more significantly associated with the development of **post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder (PTLD)**, rather than being the *most likely* general infection at 4 months [2], [3]. - While EBV can occur, CMV is typically more prevalent as a symptomatic viral infection in the intermediate post-transplant period [1]. *Candida* - **Candida** infections (fungal) are more common in the **early post-transplant period** (within the first month), often associated with surgical complications, indwelling catheters, or broad-spectrum antibiotic use [1]. - While possible, it is less likely to be the *most common* infection at 4 months compared to CMV. *Histoplasma* - **Histoplasma** infections are a **systemic fungal infection** that is typically seen in transplant patients who have been exposed to endemic areas. - It is not a common opportunistic infection universally seen in transplant recipients at 4 months post-transplant but rather depends on geographical exposure and specific risk factors.
Question 3: Hyperacute rejection occurs within:-
- A. 12 hours
- B. 24 hours
- C. 6 hours
- D. Minutes to hours (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Minutes to hours*** - **Hyperacute rejection** is a rapidly occurring complication post-transplant, characterized by its onset within minutes to hours after **organ reperfusion** [1]. - This type of rejection is mediated by pre-formed **recipient antibodies** that recognize donor antigens, leading to immediate graft damage [1]. *12 hours* - While plausible, 12 hours is a bit too broad as **hyperacute rejection** primarily begins much sooner, typically within the first few hours [1]. - This timeframe might overlap with the initial stages of **acute cellular rejection**, which typically occurs days to weeks later [1]. *24 hours* - **Hyperacute rejection** is almost always observed and causes graft failure well before the 24-hour mark, if it is going to happen. - Rejection occurring within this extended period is more indicative of **accelerated acute rejection** rather than true hyperacute rejection. *6 hours* - While hyperacute rejection certainly can occur within 6 hours, "minutes to hours" better captures the immediate onset, often within seconds or minutes [1]. - Some cases of **hyperacute rejection** can be so rapid that the 6-hour mark would be considered a late presentation. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of the Immune System, pp. 241-242.
Question 4: Acute graft rejection occurs within?
- A. Few minutes
- B. 6-12 months
- C. Few hours
- D. < 6 months (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***< 6 months*** - **Acute graft rejection** typically occurs within the first few **weeks to months** after transplantation due to a T-cell mediated immune response against the donor organ [1]. - While it can manifest at any time, the majority of cases occur within the **first 6 months** post-transplant, making this the most appropriate time frame [1]. *Few minutes* - Rejection presenting within minutes of transplantation is characteristic of **hyperacute rejection**, which is caused by pre-existing **donor-specific antibodies** [1]. - This rapid form of rejection is mediated by **complement activation** and leads to immediate graft failure [1]. *6-12 months* - Rejection occurring in this timeframe might still be acute, but the peak incidence is generally earlier. - Rejection presenting after 6 months is often categorized as **late acute rejection** or may start to transition towards signs of chronic rejection, which occurs over a longer period. *Few hours* - Rejection within a few hours could be a very early form of **acute rejection** or a delayed presentation of **hyperacute rejection** [1]. - However, the classic presentation of acute rejection is more prolonged than a few hours, usually developing over days to weeks. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of the Immune System, pp. 241-242.
Question 5: Which of the following statements about transplant rejection reactions is false:
- A. Acute rejection is readily reversible with appropriate treatment
- B. Liver is extremely sensitive to hyperacute rejection (Correct Answer)
- C. Hyperacute rejection is uncommon
- D. Chronic rejection is a major cause of late graft loss
Explanation: ***Hyperacute rejection is uncommon*** - Hyperacute rejection occurs within minutes of transplantation and is mostly associated with **pre-existing antibodies** against donor antigens, making it relatively rare with proper donor-recipient matching [1]. - Improvements in **cross-matching** techniques have led to a decrease in its incidence, reinforcing that it is not commonly encountered in modern transplants. *Acute rejection is readily reversible with appropriate treatment* - Acute rejection can be effectively treated but is not universally **reversible**, depending on the timing and severity of the rejection episode [1]. - It typically requires **immunosuppressive therapy** [2], which may not always fully restore graft function. *Chronic rejection invariably leads to loss of the graft* - Chronic rejection is a slower process that may not always lead to **immediate loss**, as some grafts can survive with reduced function for extended periods. - It's a progressive process often associated with **gradual dysfunction** rather than acute failure. *Liver is more resistant to Hyperacute rejection due to its dual blood supply.* - While the liver's dual blood supply can afford some protection, this characteristic does not completely **prevent** hyperacute rejection. - Other factors, such as the presence of **specific antibodies**, play a more significant role in hyperacute reactions than just blood supply. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of the Immune System, pp. 241-243. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. (Basic Pathology) introduces the student to key general principles of pathology, both as a medical science and as a clinical activity with a vital role in patient care. Part 2 (Disease Mechanisms) provides fundamental knowledge about the cellular and molecular processes involved in diseases, providing the rationale for their treatment. Part 3 (Systematic Pathology) deals in detail with specific diseases, with emphasis on the clinically important aspects., pp. 180-181.
Question 6: What is the consequence of preformed antibodies in organ transplantation?
- A. Delayed T-cell mediated rejection
- B. Long-term graft dysfunction due to chronic inflammation
- C. Post-transplant antibody-mediated rejection
- D. Immediate graft failure due to preformed antibodies (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Hyperacute rejection*** - This occurs immediately after transplant due to **preformed antibodies** reacting against donor antigens, leading to rapid allograft failure [1]. - It is typically associated with **complement activation** and often results in thrombosis of the graft vessels [1]. *Acute rejection* - Primarily mediated by **T cells** rather than preformed antibodies, occurring days to months after transplantation [2]. - Involves a **cellular immune response**, unlike hyperacute rejection which is antibody-mediated [2]. *Acute humoral rejection* - Also involves antibodies but develops **days to weeks** post-transplant rather than immediately like hyperacute rejection. - This type is characterized by a **specific antibody response** and complement activation, but is not due to preformed antibodies. *Chronic rejection* - A long-term process that develops over months to years due to **persistent immune-mediated injury** to the graft, leading to gradual loss of function. - Involves mechanisms such as **tissue fibrosis and vascular changes**, differing from the immediate action of preformed antibodies in hyperacute rejection. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of the Immune System, pp. 241-242. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of the Immune System, p. 242.
Question 7: Which of the following is a histopathological feature of extrahepatic biliary atresia?
- A. Hepatocyte ballooning degeneration
- B. Parenchymal cholestasis
- C. Marked bile duct proliferation (Correct Answer)
- D. Fibrosis of the hepatic duct
Explanation: ***Marked bile duct proliferation*** - Extrahepatic biliary atresia is characterized by the progressive obliteration of the **extrahepatic bile ducts**, leading to a compensatory **proliferation of intrahepatic bile ducts**. [1] - This proliferation is a hallmark histopathological finding, reflecting the body's attempt to establish alternative drainage pathways. [1] *Hepatocyte ballooning degeneration* - This feature is more characteristic of acute and chronic **hepatitis**, particularly alcoholic hepatitis or non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH). - While it can occur in severe cholestasis due to toxin accumulation, it is not a primary or specific finding for biliary atresia. *Parenchymal cholestasis* - **Parenchymal cholestasis** refers to the accumulation of bile within the hepatocytes and bile canaliculi, which can be seen in many forms of liver disease including biliary atresia. - However, it is a general sign of impaired bile flow within the liver and not a specific diagnostic feature distinguishing biliary atresia from other cholestatic conditions. [1] *Fibrosis of the hepatic duct* - While **fibrosis** does occur in biliary atresia, it typically affects the **extrahepatic bile ducts** themselves (leading to their obliteration). - The question asks for a histopathological feature, and while fibrosis is present, **marked bile duct proliferation** within the liver parenchyma is a more specific and prominent microscopic feature used in diagnosis. [1] **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Liver and Gallbladder, pp. 862-864.
Question 8: A child presented with microcephaly, hepatomegaly and periventricular calcification. What is the best specimen for diagnosis of CMV by PCR?
- A. CSF
- B. Blood
- C. Liver biopsy
- D. Urine (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Urine*** - **Urine** is the most sensitive and commonly used specimen for diagnosing **congenital CMV infection** via PCR, especially in neonates, due to high viral shedding in urine. - A positive urine CMV PCR within the first 2-3 weeks of life is highly indicative of **congenital CMV**, which can cause symptoms like **microcephaly**, **hepatomegaly**, and **periventricular calcifications**. *CSF* - While CMV can be detected in **CSF** in congenital infections, particularly in symptomatic cases with neurological involvement, it is less sensitive than urine for initial diagnosis. - **CSF PCR** is typically reserved for evaluating central nervous system involvement and may not detect systemic infection as reliably as urine. *Blood* - **Blood PCR** for CMV can be positive in congenital infection, but it can also be positive in postnatal CMV acquisition or maternal viremia without congenital transmission. - The presence of viral DNA in blood is transient, and its sensitivity for diagnosing congenital infection is generally lower than that of urine. *Liver biopsy* - **Liver biopsy** is an invasive procedure and is not the primary diagnostic method for CMV infection, although histological examination can reveal characteristic viral inclusions if there is significant hepatic involvement. - It carries risks and is typically performed only when other diagnostic methods are inconclusive or when assessing the extent of liver damage.
Question 9: In autopsy, which organ is removed with liver?
- A. Stomach
- B. Kidney
- C. Spleen (Correct Answer)
- D. Brain
Explanation: ***Spleen*** - In autopsy, the **spleen is routinely removed along with the liver** as part of standard dissection protocols (Virchow's method and variations). - This is done to examine the **portal venous system**, assess the **hepatosplenic circulation**, and evaluate pathologies affecting both organs such as **portal hypertension**, **congestive splenomegaly**, or **hepatic cirrhosis**. - The anatomical proximity and shared vascular connections make their removal together both practical and diagnostically valuable. *Kidney* - The **kidneys** are typically removed separately or as part of the **posterior abdominal block** after the liver and spleen have been removed. - While kidneys may be examined in relation to the abdominal vasculature, they are not removed in direct continuity with the liver block in standard autopsy technique. - Their retroperitoneal location makes separate dissection more appropriate. *Stomach* - The **stomach** is removed as part of the **gastrointestinal tract block**, which includes the esophagus, duodenum, and often the pancreas. - Though anatomically adjacent to the liver, it is not part of the hepatosplenic block. - Its examination focuses on mucosal pathology, ulcers, tumors, and gastric contents rather than hepatic circulation. *Brain* - The **brain** is removed as a completely separate organ through **craniotomy** after reflection of the scalp. - It is housed within the cranium and has no anatomical or dissection relationship with abdominal organs. - Brain removal follows examination of the cranial cavity, meninges, and cerebral vessels.
Question 10: Which of the following diagnostic tests is most useful in confirming the presence of ascites?
- A. Ultrasound (Correct Answer)
- B. CT scan
- C. Liver function tests
- D. Abdominal X-ray
Explanation: ***Ultrasound*** - **Ultrasound** is highly sensitive and specific for detecting even small amounts of **ascitic fluid** and can differentiate it from other abdominal masses or fluid collections. - It also allows for assessment of underlying organ pathology (e.g., **liver cirrhosis**) that may be causing the ascites and can guide **paracentesis**. *CT scan* - While a **CT scan** can detect ascites, it exposes the patient to **ionizing radiation** and is generally more expensive than an ultrasound. - It is often reserved for complex cases or when additional information about solid organ pathology is needed, beyond what ultrasound can provide. *Liver function tests* - **Liver function tests (LFTs)** assess liver function and can indicate the presence of **liver disease**, which is a common cause of ascites. - However, LFTs do not directly confirm the presence of **ascitic fluid** in the abdominal cavity but rather point to an underlying cause. *Abdominal X-ray* - An **abdominal X-ray** is very insensitive for detecting small to moderate amounts of **ascites** and is not typically used for this purpose. - It may show a **ground-glass appearance** or flank bulging in cases of massive ascites, but it lacks the detail and specificity of ultrasound or CT.
Want unlimited practice?
Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.
Start For Free