Hematopathology Practice Questions

Q: What is a distinguishing feature of reticulocytes?

Presence of residual RNA and ribosomes. ***Presence of residual RNA and ribosomes*** - This is the **defining and most distinguishing feature** of reticulocytes that differentiates them from mature red blood cells. - Reticulocytes contain residual **ribosomal RNA** and other organelles that are lost when they mature into erythrocytes. - This residual RNA forms a **reticular (network-like) pattern** when stained with supravital stains like **new methylene blue** or **brilliant cresyl blue**, which is the basis for their name and identification. - The presence of RNA allows for **reticulocyte counting**, an important marker of bone marrow erythropoietic activity. *Slightly larger in size than RBCs* - While reticulocytes may be slightly larger (polychromatophilic appearance), size variation is **not specific** and overlaps significantly with mature RBCs. - Size is not a reliable distinguishing feature and is not used for identification or counting. *Mature in bone marrow* - Reticulocytes are **released from the bone marrow** as immature red cells and complete their maturation in the **peripheral circulation** over 24-48 hours. - They do not fully mature in the bone marrow; their presence in peripheral blood is normal. *Constitute approximately 1% of the red cells* - Normal reticulocyte count is **0.5-2%** (or approximately 1%) of total red blood cells in healthy adults. - This is a **population characteristic** indicating normal erythropoietic activity, not a distinguishing cellular feature.

Q: Which antigen is tested in routine Rh typing?

D antigen. ***D antigen*** - Routine Rh typing specifically tests for the **D antigen**, which determines the Rh status of an individual as Rh-positive or Rh-negative [1]. - The presence of the **D antigen** is crucial for blood transfusions and pregnancy management [1]. *A antigen* - The **A antigen** is tested in the context of the ABO blood group system, not specifically for Rh typing. - It does not provide information regarding the Rh factor which is critical in blood compatibility. *C antigen* - Similar to the **A antigen**, the **C antigen** is part of the broader Rh system but is not routinely assessed in standard Rh typing. - Its testing is typically reserved for specific clinical scenarios involving Rh incompatibility. *B antigen* - The **B antigen** pertains to the ABO blood group and does not relate to the Rh factor or routine Rh typing. - Rh typing is solely focused on the **presence of the D antigen** to determine the Rh status. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Blood And Bone Marrow Disease, pp. 627-628.

Q: Osmotic fragility test is commonly used for which of the following conditions?

Hereditary spherocytosis. ***Hereditary spherocytosis*** - The **osmotic fragility test** helps in diagnosing hereditary spherocytosis, where **spherical red blood cells** are more prone to hemolysis in hypotonic solutions [1][2]. - This condition is characterized by **spherocytes** (abnormally shaped RBCs) leading to increased osmotic fragility [1][3]. *Megaloblastic anemia* - Megaloblastic anemia is primarily associated with **deficiencies in B12 or folate**, affecting the size and maturation of red blood cells, not their osmotic fragility. - The diagnosis focuses on **serum vitamin levels** and **bone marrow examination** rather than osmotic fragility. *Iron deficiency anemia* - Iron deficiency anemia features **microcytic** and **hypochromic RBCs**, and its diagnosis relies on **iron studies**, not osmotic fragility tests. - The osmotic fragility test does not reveal significant changes in red blood cells for this condition. *Aplastic anemia* - Aplastic anemia involves **pancytopenia** due to bone marrow failure and does not typically show altered osmotic fragility. - The diagnosis is confirmed through **bone marrow biopsy**, not by assessing osmotic fragility. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Blood And Bone Marrow Disease, pp. 597-598. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Red Blood Cell and Bleeding Disorders, pp. 640-641. [3] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Red Blood Cell and Bleeding Disorders, p. 638.

Q: Which of the following is NOT seen in polycythemia vera?

Increased erythropoietin. ***Increased erythropoietin*** - In polycythemia vera, patients usually exhibit **low erythropoietin levels** due to feedback inhibition from increased red blood cell mass. - The condition is driven by a **myeloproliferative disorder** [2], not by increased erythropoietin stimulation. *Most common cause of polycythemia* - This option is incorrect because polycythemia vera is specifically a type of **primary polycythemia** [1], rather than the most common cause, which is often **secondary causes** such as hypoxia or abnormal erythropoietin production. - Other causes including chronic lung disease or renal tumors are more prevalent sources of increased red blood cell production. *Intrinsic abnormality of hematopoietic precursors* - While polycythemia vera indeed involves an **abnormality in hematopoietic stem cells** [1], it is not the only mechanism leading to polycythemia; many cases have secondary causes. - Hence, this option misrepresents the specific and more accurate characterization of polycythemia vera. *Erythropoietin independent growth of red cell progenitors* - Polycythemia vera is associated with **erythropoietin-independent** proliferation of hematopoietic cells [2], which is characteristic of the condition due to mutations in **JAK2** [2,3]. - This accurately reflects a significant feature of the disease, aligning closely with the pathophysiology. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Red Blood Cell and Bleeding Disorders, pp. 663-664. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Blood And Bone Marrow Disease, pp. 614-615. [3] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of White Blood Cells, Lymph Nodes, Spleen, and Thymus, pp. 626-627.

Q: Which of the following does not predispose to leukemia?

Alcohol. ***Alcohol*** - Alcohol consumption does not have a well-established association with an increased risk of leukemia compared to other factors. - While excessive alcohol can impact overall health, it is not considered a primary risk factor for developing leukemia. *Chemical exposure* - Certain chemicals, such as **benzene** and **formaldehyde**, are known to be **leukemogenic** and can increase the risk of leukemia. [1] - Occupational exposure to these chemicals has been linked to **acute myeloid leukemia (AML)** and other types of leukemia. [1] *Smoking* - Smoking has been clearly associated with an increased risk of **acute myeloid leukemia (AML)** and other hematologic malignancies. [1] - The toxins in tobacco smoke can cause **DNA damage**, contributing to the development of leukemia. *Genetic disorder* - Certain genetic disorders, like **Down syndrome** and **Fanconi anemia**, are associated with an increased risk of leukemia. - Individuals with these genetic predispositions have a higher likelihood of developing various forms of leukemia.

Q: Which of the following findings is diagnostic of iron deficiency anemia?

Increased TIBC, decreased serum ferritin. ***Increased TIBC, decreased serum ferritin*** - **Iron deficiency anemia** is characterized by depleted iron stores, leading to a **decreased serum ferritin** level, which is the most sensitive and specific marker for iron deficiency [4]. - In response to low iron stores, the body upregulates iron absorption and transport mechanisms, resulting in an **increased Total Iron Binding Capacity (TIBC)**, as there are more transferrin molecules available to bind iron [1]. *Decreased TIBC, decreased serum ferritin* - While a **decreased serum ferritin** is consistent with iron deficiency, a **decreased TIBC** is more indicative of **anemia of chronic disease** [1], where the body sequesters iron, leading to reduced iron availability for binding. - In **anemia of chronic disease**, both ferritin (an acute phase reactant) and TIBC can be reduced due to the inflammatory state [1], [2]. *Increased TIBC, increased serum ferritin* - An **increased TIBC** is seen in iron deficiency, but an **increased serum ferritin** indicates adequate or even **overloaded iron stores**, which contradicts the diagnosis of iron deficiency anemia. - High ferritin levels can be seen in conditions like **hemochromatosis** (iron overload) or **inflammation**, where ferritin acts as an acute phase reactant [5]. *Decreased TIBC, increased serum ferritin* - This combination is typical of **anemia of chronic disease**, where inflammation causes **increased serum ferritin** (as an acute phase reactant) and a **decreased TIBC** due to reduced production of transferrin [1]. - In this type of anemia, iron is often trapped within macrophages, making it unavailable for erythropoiesis despite seemingly normal or elevated stores [3].

Q: What does ristocetin testing indicate in von Willebrand disease?

Decreased agglutination. ***Decreased agglutination*** - In von Willebrand disease, **ristocetin induces less agglutination** due to a deficiency or dysfunction of von Willebrand factor. - This results in **impaired platelet adhesion** [1], crucial for effective hemostasis. *Increased agglutination* - Would suggest an increased platelet interaction, which is **not characteristic of von Willebrand disease**. - It can occur in conditions with enhanced von Willebrand factor, unlike in this case. *No agglutination* - Suggests complete lack of platelet interaction, which is **not typical** in von Willebrand disease. - There is often some level of interaction, albeit reduced, not a total absence of agglutination. *Normal agglutination* - Indicates no abnormalities, which **contradicts the known pathology** of von Willebrand disease. - Patients typically demonstrate decreased levels of agglutination, not normal findings in this test.

Q: Sezary cells show which type of nucleus?

Cerebriform. ***Cerebriform*** - **Sezary cells** are characterized by their distinctive **cerebriform nuclei**, giving them an irregular, convoluted appearance [1,2]. - This finding is a hallmark of **cutaneous T-cell lymphoma** and emphasizes their potential malignancy [1,2]. *Round* - Round nuclei do not reflect the typical morphology of **Sezary cells**, which are noted for their **irregular shape**. - Other lymphocytes may exhibit round nuclei, but this does not specifically indicate a **Sezary cell** presence. *Pleomorphic* - While some malignant cells might show **pleomorphic nuclei**, Sezary cells uniquely showcase **cerebriform nuclei** rather than varying shapes [1,2]. - Pleomorphic is not a defining characteristic of **Sezary cells**, making this description inaccurate. *Eosinophillic* - Eosinophilic refers to cells that stain positively for **eosin**, typically associated with **eosinophils**, which is not relevant to **Sezary cells**. - Sezary cells are more about their **nuclear morphology** and less about eosinophilic staining characteristics. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Diseases Of The Urinary And Male Genital Tracts, pp. 564-565. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of White Blood Cells, Lymph Nodes, Spleen, and Thymus, pp. 613-614.

Q: Which antibody is primarily associated with warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA)?

IgG. ***IgG*** - **Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA)** is primarily associated with **IgG antibodies**, which mediate hemolysis at body temperature [1]. - IgG antibodies typically bind to red blood cells and lead to their destruction by the **reticuloendothelial system** [1]. *IgM* - Often involved in **cold agglutinin disease**, not warm AIHA, as it primarily reacts at lower temperatures [2]. - Usually results in **hemolysis** in peripheral areas, like the extremities, rather than at normal body temperature [2]. *IgD* - Known primarily as a marker on **B cells**, it plays a minimal role in hemolytic anemia and is not involved in antibody-mediated hemolysis. - Lack of significant **serological presence** in autoimmune hemolytic processes makes it an unlikely candidate. *IgE* - Primarily associated with **allergic reactions** and parasitic infections rather than autoimmune hemolytic conditions [2]. - Does not typically participate in **hemolysis** or bind to red blood cells in AIHA.

Q: The most common translocation seen in patients with Multiple Myeloma is:

t(11;14). ***t(11;14)*** - This translocation is the **most common cytogenetic abnormality** found in patients with multiple myeloma, occurring in approximately 15-20% of cases. - It results in the juxtaposition of the **IgH gene on chromosome 14** with the **cyclin D1 gene on chromosome 11**, leading to overexpression of cyclin D1. *t(4;14)* - This translocation, occurring in about 5-10% of patients, is associated with a **poor prognosis** in multiple myeloma. - It involves the IgH gene on chromosome 14 and the **FGFR3 and MMSET genes on chromosome 4**, leading to their upregulation. *t(14;16)* - This translocation is also associated with a **poor prognosis** and is less common than t(11;14) or t(4;14), found in about 2-5% of cases. - It involves the **IgH gene on chromosome 14** and the **c-MAF gene on chromosome 16**, leading to overexpression of c-MAF. *t(14;20)* - This translocation is **rarely observed** in multiple myeloma patients, typically occurring in less than 1% of cases. - It involves the **IgH gene on chromosome 14** and the **MAFB gene on chromosome 20**, which can also contribute to disease progression.

Question 1

What is a distinguishing feature of reticulocytes?

Accepted Answer

Presence of residual RNA and ribosomes

Answer

Slightly larger in size than RBCs

Answer

Mature in bone marrow

Answer

Constitute approximately 1% of the red cells

Question 2

Which antigen is tested in routine Rh typing?

Accepted Answer

D antigen

Answer

C antigen

Answer

A antigen

Answer

B antigen

Question 3

Osmotic fragility test is commonly used for which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

Hereditary spherocytosis

Answer

Megaloblastic anemia

Answer

Aplastic anemia

Answer

Iron deficiency anemia

Question 4

Which of the following is NOT seen in polycythemia vera?

Accepted Answer

Increased erythropoietin

Answer

Intrinsic abnormality of hematopoietic precursors

Answer

Erythropoietin independent growth of red cell progenitors

Answer

Most common cause of primary polycythemia

Question 5

Which of the following does not predispose to leukemia?

Accepted Answer

Alcohol

Answer

Smoking

Answer

Chemical exposure

Answer

Genetic disorder

Question 6

Which of the following findings is diagnostic of iron deficiency anemia?

Accepted Answer

Increased TIBC, decreased serum ferritin

Answer

Decreased TIBC, decreased serum ferritin

Answer

Increased TIBC, increased serum ferritin

Answer

Decreased TIBC, increased serum ferritin

Question 7

What does ristocetin testing indicate in von Willebrand disease?

Accepted Answer

Decreased agglutination

Answer

Normal agglutination

Answer

Increased agglutination

Answer

No agglutination

Question 8

Sezary cells show which type of nucleus?

Accepted Answer

Cerebriform

Answer

Pleomorphic

Answer

Round

Answer

Eosinophilic

Question 9

Which antibody is primarily associated with warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA)?

Accepted Answer

IgG

Answer

IgE

Answer

IgM

Answer

IgD

Question 10

The most common translocation seen in patients with Multiple Myeloma is:

Accepted Answer

t(11;14)

Answer

t(14;16)

Answer

t(4;14)

Answer

t(14;20)

Hematopathology — MCQs

Hematopathology — MCQs

On this page

Practice by Chapter

Want unlimited practice?