General Pathology Practice Questions

Q: White infarcts are seen in which of the following organs?

All the above. ### Explanation Infarction is categorized into two types based on the color and the nature of the blood supply to the organ: **White (Anemic) Infarcts** and **Red (Hemorrhagic) Infarcts**. **Mechanism of White Infarcts:** White infarcts occur in **solid organs** with **end-arterial circulation** (single blood supply). When an artery is occluded, there is no collateral flow to bypass the blockage. The tissue undergoes ischemic necrosis, and because the organ is solid/dense, it limits the amount of blood that can seep into the necrotic area from adjacent capillary beds. Over time, the area becomes pale and well-circumscribed. * **Kidney:** A classic site for white infarcts due to its end-arterial system (arcuate and interlobular arteries). These infarcts are typically wedge-shaped. * **Spleen:** Similar to the kidney, the splenic artery branches are end-arteries, making the spleen highly susceptible to pale, wedge-shaped infarcts (often seen in embolic events like infective endocarditis). * **Heart:** Myocardial infarction is a white infarct [2]. Although there are some anastomoses, the coronary arteries function as functional end-arteries [2]. **Why "All the above" is correct:** All three organs—Kidney, Spleen, and Heart—possess the structural density and limited collateral blood supply required to produce a pale/white infarct upon arterial occlusion. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Red (Hemorrhagic) Infarcts:** Occur in loose tissues (Lungs), organs with dual blood supply (Liver, Lungs, Small Intestine), or when there is venous occlusion (Ovarian torsion). * **Morphology:** Most white infarcts are **wedge-shaped**, with the apex pointing toward the occluded vessel and the base at the organ periphery. * **Microscopy:** The hallmark of most infarcts (except the brain) is **Coagulative Necrosis**. Brain infarcts result in **Liquefactive Necrosis** [1].

Q: Which of the following is not teratogenic for fetal development?

Herpes. **Explanation:** The correct answer is **Herpes (HSV-2)**. In the context of teratogenicity—which refers to agents causing structural malformations during organogenesis (typically the first trimester)—Herpes Simplex Virus is generally not considered a classic teratogen. While HSV can cause devastating neonatal infection, it is usually transmitted **perinatally** (during passage through the birth canal) rather than transplacentally during early development. **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Rubella:** A classic member of the TORCH complex. Infection in the first trimester leads to **Congenital Rubella Syndrome**, characterized by the triad of cataracts, sensorineural deafness, and cardiac defects (PDA). * **Alcohol:** The most common preventable cause of teratogenicity. It leads to **Fetal Alcohol Syndrome (FAS)**, presenting with microcephaly, smooth philtrum, thin upper lip, and intellectual disability. * **Tetracycline:** A well-known pharmacological teratogen. It crosses the placenta and chelates calcium, leading to **permanent yellow-brown discoloration of deciduous teeth** and inhibition of bone growth. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **TORCH Agents:** Remember that while Rubella, CMV, and Toxoplasmosis are classic teratogens, **HSV and HIV** are primarily transmitted during delivery (vertical transmission). * **Rule of Thumb:** Teratogens act most severely during the **3rd to 8th week** of gestation (organogenesis). * **Tetracycline Timing:** It affects teeth if taken after the 14th week of gestation when deciduous teeth begin to calcify. * **Safe Antibiotics in Pregnancy:** Penicillins, Cephalosporins, and Erythromycin are generally preferred over Tetracyclines or Fluoroquinolones.

Question 1

White infarcts are seen in which of the following organs?

Accepted Answer

All the above

Answer

Kidney

Answer

Spleen

Answer

Heart

Question 2

A 17-year-old soccer player suffered a fracture to the left tibia. After his lower leg has been in a cast for 8 weeks, he found that the left gastrocnemius muscle is significantly smaller in circumference than it was before the fracture. What is the most likely explanation?

Accepted Answer

Temporary reduction in actin and myosin protein synthesis.

Answer

Decrease in the number of individual muscle fibers in the muscle.

Answer

Decrease in blood flow to the muscle caused by constriction from the cast.

Answer

Progressive denervation.

Question 3

Which inherited coagulation defect is characterized by prolonged coagulation time?

Accepted Answer

All of the above

Answer

Protein C deficiency

Answer

Protein S deficiency

Answer

Antithrombin III deficiency

Question 4

Which of the following is false regarding Gaucher's disease?

Accepted Answer

Tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase is negative

Answer

Beta-glucocerebrosidase is defective

Answer

Cherry red spots are seen on fundoscopy

Answer

Erlenmeyer's flask deformity is present

Question 5

Coagulative necrosis is commonly seen in all except:

Accepted Answer

Encephalitis

Answer

Tuberculosis

Answer

Sarcoidosis

Answer

Wet gangrene

Question 6

A patient is a known case of polyarteritis nodosa. On examination of a biopsy, accumulation of amorphous, eosinophilic, proteinaceous material in the vessel wall was seen. This finding is suggestive of:

Accepted Answer

Fibrinoid necrosis

Answer

Leukocytoclastic vasculitis

Answer

Hyaline arteriosclerosis

Answer

Caseous necrosis

Question 7

Pathologic calcification is seen in which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

Scleroderma

Answer

Lichen planus

Answer

Dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa

Answer

Lupus erythematosus

Question 8

Which of the following is not teratogenic for fetal development?

Accepted Answer

Herpes

Answer

Rubella

Answer

Alcohol

Answer

Tetracycline

Question 9

Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning amyloidosis?

Accepted Answer

Amyloidosis of the spleen is associated with severe anemia.

Answer

Amyloidosis associated with multiple myeloma has the poorest prognosis.

Answer

Fine-needle biopsy of subcutaneous abdominal fat is a simple and reliable method for diagnosing secondary systemic amyloidosis.

Answer

Hepatic amyloid disease produces hepatomegaly but rarely jaundice.

Question 10

Which enzyme converts hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen?

Accepted Answer

Catalase

Answer

Superoxide dismutase

Answer

Glutathione peroxidase

Answer

Myeloperoxidase

General Pathology — MCQs

General Pathology — MCQs

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