Fracture Complications — MCQs
Which of the following is NOT a complication of a neck femur fracture?
Nonunion is most common in fracture of the:
Proximal humerus fracture which has maximum chances of avascular necrosis
Which of the following findings appear late in compartment syndrome?
What is to be addressed first in case of polytrauma -
All of the following can be the complications of a malunited Colles fracture except:
What is the primary reason for early stabilization of a femur shaft fracture?
Least common complication of a fall from height is -
Scaphoid fracture, which area has the maximum chances of avascular necrosis?
Most common complication of mid shaft humerus fracture is ?
Fracture Complications Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Which of the following is NOT a complication of a neck femur fracture?
- A. Nonunion
- B. Osteoarthritis
- C. AVN
- D. Malunion (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Malunion*** - **Malunion** is a rare complication of a femoral neck fracture because the fracture is inherently unstable and tends to result in **nonunion** rather than healing in an abnormal position. - The **vascular compromise** and mechanical forces often lead to a failure to heal whatsoever, or to avascular necrosis. *Nonunion* - **Nonunion** is a common and severe complication of femoral neck fractures due to the **precarious blood supply** to the femoral head and the high mechanical stress across the fracture site. - The lack of adequate blood flow and movement at the fracture site hinders the formation of a **bony callus**, leading to failure of the bone to heal. *AVN* - **Avascular necrosis (AVN)** of the femoral head is a major complication resulting from the disruption of the arterial blood supply to the femoral head during the fracture. - The **retinacular arteries**, which supply most of the femoral head, are often damaged, leading to the death of bone cells and subsequent collapse of the femoral head. *Osteoarthritis* - **Post-traumatic osteoarthritis** can develop as a long-term complication, even if the fracture heals. - The initial injury and any subsequent irregularities in the joint surface or alignment can lead to accelerated **cartilage degeneration**.
Question 2: Nonunion is most common in fracture of the:
- A. Talus
- B. Neck femur (Correct Answer)
- C. Scapula
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Neck femur*** - Fractures of the **femoral neck** are highly prone to **nonunion** due to the precarious and often-disrupted blood supply to the femoral head, particularly the **retinacular arteries**. - The high biomechanical stress and difficulty in achieving stable fixation in this region further contribute to the increased risk of nonunion. *Talus* - While talar fractures, especially those of the **talar neck**, can have a high incidence of complications like **avascular necrosis** due to limited blood supply, nonunion is less common than in femoral neck fractures. - The talus has a complex vascular network that, while vulnerable, often allows for healing. *Scapula* - **Scapular fractures** are generally uncommon and, when they occur, typically heal well without surgical intervention. - Due to the surrounding musculature and rich vascular supply, nonunion of the scapula is extremely rare. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **nonunion is indeed a significant problem** in specific fractures, particularly those of the femoral neck, making it a viable answer.
Question 3: Proximal humerus fracture which has maximum chances of avascular necrosis
- A. One part
- B. Two part
- C. Three part
- D. Four part (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Four part fracture*** - A **four-part proximal humerus fracture** typically involves displacement of the humeral head, greater tuberosity, lesser tuberosity, and humeral shaft. - This extensive displacement significantly disrupts the **blood supply** to the humeral head, specifically the **arcuate artery** and its branches, leading to a high risk of **avascular necrosis**. *One part fracture* - A **one-part fracture** indicates that the fracture fragments are minimally displaced (<1 cm or <45° angulation). - The **blood supply** to the humeral head remains largely intact, resulting in a very low risk of avascular necrosis. *Two part fracture* - A **two-part fracture** involves displacement of one major fragment (e.g., surgical neck or tuberosity) from the humeral head. - While there is some disruption, the overall risk of **avascular necrosis** is lower compared to more complex fractures. *Three part fracture* - A **three-part fracture** involves separate displacement of the humeral head and two tuberosities. - This fracture pattern causes more significant disruption to the **vascularity** of the humeral head than two-part fractures but generally less than four-part fractures.
Question 4: Which of the following findings appear late in compartment syndrome?
- A. Paralysis
- B. Pain on passive stretch
- C. Pulselessness (Correct Answer)
- D. Pallor
Explanation: ***Pulselessness*** - **Pulselessness** is a very late and ominous sign in compartment syndrome, indicating severe arterial compromise that has progressed beyond simple venous and lymphatic outflow obstruction. - Its presence suggests **irreversible tissue damage** has likely already occurred due to prolonged ischemia. *Paralysis* - **Paralysis** is a late sign, indicating significant nerve ischemia and damage due to sustained pressure within the compartment. - While it's a serious finding, it typically appears before pulselessness, as nerves are sensitive to ischemia but arteries are more resistant to complete occlusion until very high pressures are reached. *Pain on passive stretch* - **Pain on passive stretch** is considered one of the earliest and most reliable clinical signs of early compartment syndrome. - It results from the stretching of ischemic muscle fibers within the confined compartment. *Pallor* - **Pallor** (skin paleness) is also a relatively late sign, occurring when capillary perfusion is significantly reduced due to rising intracompartmental pressure. - It usually manifests when the pressure is high enough to restrict blood flow but often precedes the complete absence of pulses.
Question 5: What is to be addressed first in case of polytrauma -
- A. Circulation
- B. Neurology
- C. Blood Pressure
- D. Airway (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Airway*** - Maintaining a **patent airway** is the absolute first priority in polytrauma management according to the **ATLS (Advanced Trauma Life Support)** protocol. - Failure to secure an airway can lead to **hypoxia** and **brain damage** within minutes, regardless of other injuries. *Circulation* - While critical, addressing **circulation** (C in ABCDE) comes after establishing a secure airway and adequate breathing (A and B). - Uncontrolled hemorrhage would be the focus of circulation management, but only after guaranteeing proper oxygenation. *Neurology* - Neurological assessment (D in ABCDE for Disability) follows the primary survey of airway, breathing, and circulation. - Initial neurological evaluation focuses on **level of consciousness** using the **GCS (Glasgow Coma Scale)**. *Blood Pressure* - **Blood pressure** is an indicator of circulatory status but is not the first thing to be addressed. - It falls under the "C" for circulation in the ATLS protocol, which is secondary to airway and breathing.
Question 6: All of the following can be the complications of a malunited Colles fracture except:
- A. Rupture of flexor pollicis longus tendon (Correct Answer)
- B. Carpal instability
- C. Carpal tunnel syndrome
- D. Reflex sympathetic dystrophy (RSD)
Explanation: ***Rupture of flexor pollicis longus tendon*** - Malunion of a Colles fracture typically involves dorsal displacement of the distal radius, which can lead to friction and rupture of the **extensor pollicis longus (EPL)** tendon due to irritation over the dorsal bony prominence. - The **flexor pollicis longus (FPL)** tendon is on the palmar side of the wrist and is generally not at risk for rupture from a dorsally malunited Colles fracture. *Carpal instability* - **Malunion of a Colles fracture** can significantly alter the normal anatomy and mechanics of the radiocarpal joint, leading to **carpal instability**. - Changes in radial inclination, volar tilt, and radial length can disrupt load bearing and ligamentous integrity, predisposing to carpal collapse or dissociation. *Carpal tunnel syndrome* - Malunion can lead to **decreased carpal tunnel volume** and angulation of the carpal bones, increasing pressure on the **median nerve**. - This anatomical alteration can lead to symptoms of **carpal tunnel syndrome**, such as numbness, tingling, and pain in the median nerve distribution. *Reflex sympathetic dystrophy (RSD)* - Also known as **Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS) Type I**, RSD is a well-recognized complication following trauma or surgery to an extremity, including Colles fractures. - It presents with pain, swelling, *trophic skin changes*, and vasomotor dysfunction, and can be severely incapacitating.
Question 7: What is the primary reason for early stabilization of a femur shaft fracture?
- A. To prevent significant blood loss.
- B. To reduce pain and discomfort.
- C. To facilitate quicker healing.
- D. To prevent fat embolism syndrome and systemic complications (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***To prevent fat embolism syndrome and systemic complications*** - Early stabilization of femur shaft fractures significantly **reduces the incidence of fat embolism syndrome (FES)**. Fat emboli released from the bone marrow can travel to the lungs and brain, causing severe respiratory distress and neurological deficits. - By stabilizing the fracture, the **release of fat globules is minimized**, thereby preventing FES and associated systemic complications such as acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) and adult respiratory distress syndrome (ADRS). *To prevent significant blood loss.* - While femur fractures can cause significant blood loss, the primary reason for early stabilization is not solely to prevent it but to reduce complications. **Blood loss is a direct consequence**, but FES poses a greater immediate threat to life. - Furthermore, **blood loss can often be managed initially by other means**, such as fluid resuscitation and direct pressure, while FES requires prompt reduction of fracture movement. *To reduce pain and discomfort.* - Reducing pain and discomfort is an important benefit of stabilization, but it is **not the primary life-saving reason** for early intervention. Analgesics and proper splinting can also address pain. - The focus on early stabilization goes beyond symptomatic relief to actively prevent **potentially fatal systemic complications**. *To facilitate quicker healing.* - While stability is crucial for proper healing, **early stabilization primarily addresses acute, life-threatening complications** rather than long-term healing rates. Optimal healing depends on many factors, including blood supply and infection control, not solely on initial stabilization. - **Quicker healing is a secondary benefit**; the immediate priority is to prevent acute morbidity and mortality associated with the fracture.
Question 8: Least common complication of a fall from height is -
- A. Fracture fibula (Correct Answer)
- B. Fracture base of skull
- C. Fracture 12th thoracic vertebra
- D. Fracture calcaneum
Explanation: ***Fracture fibula*** - A fibula fracture is the **least common** with a fall from height because the force is typically axial, impacting the lower limbs. - The fibula is a **non-weight-bearing bone**, making it less susceptible to direct axial compression trauma from a fall. *Fracture base of skull* - **Basilar skull fractures** can occur from significant head trauma in a fall, especially when the head strikes a surface. - While not as common as extremity fractures, they are a serious and known complication of falls from height. *Fracture 12th thoracic vertebra* - **Vertebral compression fractures**, particularly in the thoracolumbar region (like T12), are common due to axial loading upon landing on the buttocks or feet. - This is a frequent injury in falls from height due to the **compressive forces** transmitted through the spine. *Fracture calcaneum* - **Heel bone fractures** (calcaneum) are very common in falls from height, as direct impact often occurs on the feet. - The calcaneus bears the initial and substantial impact, making it highly vulnerable to **crush injuries** in such falls.
Question 9: Scaphoid fracture, which area has the maximum chances of avascular necrosis?
- A. Proximal 1/3 (Correct Answer)
- B. Middle 1/3
- C. Distal 1/3
- D. Scaphoid Tubercle Fracture
Explanation: ***Proximal 1/3*** - The **scaphoid** has a precarious blood supply, with arterial branches entering predominantly from its distal pole and flowing proximally. - A fracture in the **proximal one-third** disrupts this retrograde blood flow to the most proximal portion of the bone, making it highly susceptible to **avascular necrosis** due to lack of nourishment. *Middle 1/3* - While fractures in this region (often called the **waist**) are the most common type of scaphoid fracture, they carry a **moderate risk of avascular necrosis** compared to the proximal pole. - The more distal blood supply may still perfuse some parts of the middle segment, but healing is often prolonged. *Distal 1/3* - Fractures in the **distal one-third** of the scaphoid (distal pole) have an **excellent prognosis** and a very low risk of avascular necrosis. - This is because the blood supply to the distal pole is robust and typically remains intact even after a fracture in this region. *Scaphoid Tubercle Fracture* - The **scaphoid tubercle** is a prominence on the palmar aspect of the distal scaphoid. - Fractures here are considered stable, heal well due to good blood supply, and rarely lead to **avascular necrosis**.
Question 10: Most common complication of mid shaft humerus fracture is ?
- A. Radial nerve palsy (Correct Answer)
- B. Median nerve palsy
- C. Nonunion
- D. Malunion
Explanation: ***Radial nerve palsy*** - The **radial nerve** runs in close proximity to the **spiral groove** of the humerus, making it highly vulnerable to injury in mid-shaft fractures. - This results in the characteristic **wrist drop** and loss of sensation over the dorsal aspect of the hand. *Median nerve palsy* - The **median nerve** is not typically affected by mid-shaft humeral fractures as it is located more medially and anteriorly. - Injury to the median nerve is more common with supracondylar fractures of the humerus or carpal tunnel syndrome. *Nonunion* - While **nonunion** (failure of bone healing) occasionally occurs after mid-shaft humerus fractures, **radial nerve palsy** is a more immediate and frequent complication observed at the time of injury. - Risks for nonunion include severe trauma, soft tissue interposition, and inadequate immobilization. *Malunion* - **Malunion** (healing in an unacceptable alignment) can occur, especially with conservative management, but like nonunion, it is a complication of the healing process rather than an acute injury presentation. - Functional outcomes are generally good even with some degree of angulation in humeral shaft fractures.
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