Computer-Assisted Trauma Surgery — MCQs
Which of the following is not considered an emergency treatment for acetabular fractures?
Judet view is used for fracture of
Road traffic accident (RTA) with multiple fractures - initial treatment would be:
McMurray's osteotomy is done for
All of the following are indications for open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of fractures EXCEPT:
The K nail can be used for all of the following types of fractures except -
A man presents to the emergency department with a head injury following a vehicular accident. What is the investigation of choice?
32 years old lady with twin dichorionic diamniotic pregnancy, first baby breech presentation and second baby cephalic presentation. What is the management?
All are predisposing factors of Deep Vein thrombosis, EXCEPT :
Vacuum assisted closure is contraindicated in which of the following conditions -
Computer-Assisted Trauma Surgery Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Which of the following is not considered an emergency treatment for acetabular fractures?
- A. Open acetabular fracture
- B. Recurrent dislocations despite fixation with traction
- C. Progressive sciatic nerve involvement
- D. Morel-Lavallee lesion (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Morel-Lavallee lesion** - While a Morel-Lavallee lesion is a serious injury that can occur with acetabular fractures, it is not typically considered an **absolute emergency** requiring immediate surgical intervention in the same way other complications are. - Management often involves drainage and compression, and surgical débridement is usually performed electively if it significantly enlarges or becomes symptomatic. *Recurrent dislocations despite fixation with traction* - This indicates **instability** of the hip joint, which can lead to further damage to the articular cartilage, labrum, and surrounding soft tissues, necessitating **urgent surgical stabilization**. - Persistent dislocation can result in avascular necrosis of the femoral head or damage to the **neurovascular structures**. *Open acetabular fracture* - An open fracture presents a direct communication between the fracture site and the external environment, carrying a **high risk of infection** (osteomyelitis). - This requires **immediate surgical débridement** and antibiotics to prevent severe complications. *Progressive sciatic nerve involvement* - Progressive neurological deficit, such as increasing weakness or sensory loss in the distribution of the sciatic nerve, indicates **ongoing nerve compression or injury**. - This is a neurosurgical emergency that requires **urgent decompression** to prevent permanent neurological damage.
Question 2: Judet view is used for fracture of
- A. Scaphoid
- B. Acetabulum (Correct Answer)
- C. Coccyx
- D. Calcaneum
Explanation: ***Acetabulum*** - **Judet views** are specialized radiographic projections (specifically, iliac oblique and obturator oblique views) designed to visualize the **acetabular columns** and determine the pattern of acetabular fractures. - These views help in assessing the anterior and posterior columns of the acetabulum, providing critical information for surgical planning of **acetabular fractures**. *Scaphoid* - Fractures of the **scaphoid** are primarily evaluated using standard wrist views (PA, lateral, oblique) and often dedicated **scaphoid views** or MRI due to its complex anatomy and high risk of avascular necrosis. - The imaging techniques for scaphoid fractures focus on visualizing the scaphoid bone directly, which is not the purpose of Judet views. *Coccyx* - Fractures of the **coccyx** are typically diagnosed with lateral views of the sacrum and coccyx, or CT scans in complex cases. - The Judet view is specific for the hip joint and acetabulum, not the tailbone. *Calcaneum* - Fractures of the **calcaneum** (heel bone) are evaluated using standard foot radiographs (lateral, axial calcaneal view) and often a CT scan to assess the extent of intra-articular involvement. - The Judet view has no application in the assessment of calcaneal injuries.
Question 3: Road traffic accident (RTA) with multiple fractures - initial treatment would be:
- A. Management of shock
- B. Splinting of limbs
- C. Airway management (Correct Answer)
- D. Cervical spine protection
Explanation: ***Airway management*** - In trauma, **establishing and maintaining a patent airway** is the absolute priority, as compromised breathing can lead to rapid deterioration and death. - The **ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation)** of trauma care dictate that airway intervention precedes other life-saving measures. *Management of shock* - While crucial, **managing shock (C)** follows **airway (A)** and **breathing (B)** in the primary survey of trauma care. - Addressing profound shock without a patent airway can be ineffective and leads to irreversible damage. *Splinting of limbs* - **Splinting fractures** is important for pain control, preventing further injury, and minimizing blood loss in open fractures, but it is not an immediate life-saving intervention. - This falls under the **secondary survey** or definitive management, after life-threatening issues have been addressed. *Cervical spine protection* - **Cervical spine protection** is essential in trauma to prevent further neurological injury and is performed simultaneously with airway management (often with in-line stabilization). - However, a patent airway is the **most immediate life-sustaining intervention** if the airway is compromised.
Question 4: McMurray's osteotomy is done for
- A. Malunited intertrochanteric fracture of femur
- B. Malunited supracondylar fracture of humerus
- C. Nonunion lateral condyle fracture of humerus
- D. Nonunion transcervical neck fracture of femur (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Nonunion transcervical neck fracture of femur*** - **McMurray's osteotomy** was historically performed for **nonunion of femoral neck fractures**, particularly transcervical, to improve blood supply and encourage healing. - The procedure involves an **intertrochanteric osteotomy** which changes the biomechanics of the hip, promoting compression at the fracture site. *Malunited intertrochanteric fracture of femur* - This osteotomy is not typically indicated for **malunited intertrochanteric fractures**, as these usually heal well and subsequent malunion is managed differently if symptomatic. - Intertrochanteric fractures often have an **excellent blood supply**, making nonunion less common than in transcervical fractures. *Malunited supracondylar fracture of humerus* - **Malunited supracondylar fractures of the humerus** are managed according to the deformity, often with corrective osteotomies specific to the humerus, not McMurray's osteotomy. - McMurray's osteotomy is a procedure designed for the **femur** and hip joint biomechanics. *Nonunion lateral condyle fracture of humerus* - **Nonunion of lateral condyle fractures of the humerus** is a problem of the elbow joint and is treated with local procedures such as open reduction and internal fixation with bone grafting. - This fracture type is in the **upper limb** and has no relation to the hip-focused McMurray's osteotomy.
Question 5: All of the following are indications for open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of fractures EXCEPT:
- A. Multiple trauma
- B. Stable closed fracture (Correct Answer)
- C. Compound fracture
- D. Intra-articular fracture
Explanation: ***Stable closed fracture*** - A **stable closed fracture** typically does not require surgical intervention with ORIF as it can usually be managed non-surgically with casting or bracing. - The goal of ORIF is to achieve **anatomic reduction and rigid fixation**, which is not necessary for stable fractures that maintain alignment. *Multiple trauma* - In patients with **multiple trauma**, early stabilization of long bone fractures using ORIF can help reduce pain, prevent further injury, and facilitate patient mobilization. - This approach aims to reduce the risk of complications such as **ARDS (acute respiratory distress syndrome)** and fat embolism for critically ill patients. *Compound fracture* - **Compound (open) fractures** involve a break in the skin, exposing the bone to the external environment, and are a classic indication for surgical management. - ORIF in these cases helps to achieve **stabilization** after debridement, crucial for preventing infection and promoting bone healing. *Intra-articular fracture* - **Intra-articular fractures** involve the joint surface, and accurate anatomical reduction is critical to prevent post-traumatic arthritis and preserve joint function. - ORIF provides the precise reduction and stable fixation needed to restore the **joint congruity**.
Question 6: The K nail can be used for all of the following types of fractures except -
- A. Isthmic femur shaft fractures
- B. Intertrochanteric fractures (Correct Answer)
- C. Low subtrochanteric fractures
- D. Distal femur shaft fractures
Explanation: ***Intertrochanteric fractures*** - The K nail (specifically, the Kuntscher nail) is a **straight intramedullary nail** primarily designed for diaphyseal fractures. - It is **not suitable for intertrochanteric fractures** as these are metaphyseal and involve the proximal femur, requiring implants that offer greater stability in this region, such as cephalomedullary nails or plates. *Isthmic femur shaft fractures* - The **Kuntscher nail** was originally developed for and is well-suited for **isthmic femur shaft fractures** due to the narrow canal providing good cortical fixation. - Its design as a straight, broad nail fits snugly in the isthmus, providing excellent stability. *Low subtrochanteric fractures* - While more challenging, **K nails can be used for low subtrochanteric fractures**, especially if the fracture extends into the diaphyseal region. - However, newer implants like **cephalomedullary nails** are often preferred due to better biomechanical stability in this region. *Distal femur shaft fractures* - **K nails can be employed for distal femoral shaft fractures** if the fracture pattern allows for adequate fixation distal to the isthmus without compromising knee joint function. - The nail must be long enough to achieve stability, and the lack of proper locking mechanisms in traditional K nails may be a limiting factor compared to locked intramedullary nails.
Question 7: A man presents to the emergency department with a head injury following a vehicular accident. What is the investigation of choice?
- A. MRI
- B. CECT
- C. NCCT (Correct Answer)
- D. X-ray
Explanation: ***NCCT*** - **Non-contrast Computed Tomography (NCCT)** of the head is the **investigation of choice** for acute head trauma due to its rapid acquisition, wide availability, and excellent sensitivity for detecting acute hemorrhage, fractures, and mass effects. - It rapidly identifies life-threatening conditions such as **epidural, subdural, and intracerebral hemorrhages**, which require immediate intervention. *MRI* - **MRI** is superior for detecting subtle brain tissue injuries, diffuse axonal injury, and non-hemorrhagic lesions but is generally **not the first-line investigation** in acute trauma due to longer scan times, limited availability in the emergency setting, and inability to detect acute hemorrhage as clearly as CT. - Its use is typically reserved for follow-up studies or when CT findings are inconclusive or specific soft tissue detail is required. *CECT* - **Contrast-enhanced CT (CECT)** of the head is reserved for specific indications like evaluating vascular lesions (e.g., aneurysms, arteriovenous malformations) or tumors, which are generally **not the primary concern** in the initial assessment of acute head trauma. - Administering contrast agents can delay imaging, may pose risks to patients with renal impairment or allergies, and does not significantly improve the detection of acute traumatic hemorrhage compared to NCCT. *X-ray* - **X-rays** of the skull are useful for detecting **skull fractures**, but they provide **limited information** regarding intracranial injuries or soft tissue damage, which are critical in head trauma. - They have largely been superseded by CT scans, which offer a more comprehensive view of both bony structures and intracranial contents.
Question 8: 32 years old lady with twin dichorionic diamniotic pregnancy, first baby breech presentation and second baby cephalic presentation. What is the management?
- A. Assisted breech
- B. C - Section (Correct Answer)
- C. Instrumental delivery
- D. Normal vaginal delivery
Explanation: ***C-Section*** - When **twin A is in breech presentation** in a dichorionic diamniotic twin pregnancy, **elective Cesarean section** is the recommended mode of delivery according to ACOG and most international guidelines. - The primary concern is the **increased risk of complications with breech delivery** of the first twin, including **head entrapment**, **cord prolapse**, and **birth trauma**. - While twin B is cephalic (which would be favorable for vaginal delivery if it were the presenting twin), the non-cephalic presentation of twin A dictates the mode of delivery for both twins. *Assisted breech* - While breech extraction may be considered in select cases where **twin A is cephalic and twin B is breech**, attempting vaginal breech delivery when twin A presents as breech is generally not recommended. - The risks of breech delivery for the first twin include **difficulty delivering the aftercoming head**, **cord prolapse**, and **birth asphyxia**, which are unacceptable in an elective situation where cesarean section is readily available. *Instrumental delivery* - Instrumental delivery (forceps or vacuum) is used to assist delivery of a **cephalic presentation** in the second stage of labor. - It cannot be used for **breech presentation** of twin A, making it inappropriate as a primary management strategy in this scenario. *Normal vaginal delivery* - Vaginal delivery with **twin A in non-cephalic (breech) presentation** is contraindicated in most modern obstetric guidelines due to significantly increased perinatal morbidity and mortality. - Even though twin B is cephalic, the presentation of twin A determines the overall delivery approach in twin pregnancies.
Question 9: All are predisposing factors of Deep Vein thrombosis, EXCEPT :
- A. Lower limb trauma
- B. Cushing's syndrome
- C. Hip surgery
- D. Subungual melanoma (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Subungual melanoma*** - This is a rare form of melanoma that develops under the nail, and while serious, it is **not a recognized predisposing factor for deep vein thrombosis (DVT)**. Its primary concerns are local invasion and metastasis. - Unlike conditions affecting blood clotting or endothelium, **subungual melanoma does not directly promote hypercoagulability, venous stasis, or endothelial damage** that contribute to DVT. *Lower limb trauma* - **Trauma to the lower limb** can cause **endothelial damage** to blood vessels and **venous stasis** due to immobility or swelling, both key components of **Virchow's triad** for DVT [1]. - **Fractures or severe soft tissue injuries** often necessitate immobilization and can lead to inflammation, further increasing the risk of clot formation [1]. *Cushing's syndrome* - **Cushing's syndrome** is associated with **hypercoagulability** due to increased levels of clotting factors, such as **factor VIII** and **fibrinogen**, and decreased fibrinolytic activity. - The **elevated cortisol levels** seen in Cushing's syndrome [2] can directly contribute to a prothrombotic state, significantly increasing DVT risk. *Hip surgery* - **Major orthopedic surgeries**, especially hip surgery [1], are well-known to cause significant **venous stasis** and **endothelial damage**. - **Post-operative immobility** and a generalized **inflammatory response** following surgery contribute to a high risk of DVT formation [1].
Question 10: Vacuum assisted closure is contraindicated in which of the following conditions -
- A. Chronic osteomyelitis
- B. Large amount of necrotic tissue with eschar (Correct Answer)
- C. Abdominal wound
- D. Surgical wound dehiscence
Explanation: ***Large amount of necrotic tissue with eschar*** - The presence of a large amount of **necrotic tissue** and **eschar** is a contraindication for VAC therapy because it prevents effective contact between the foam and viable tissue, impairing wound healing. - Eschar acts as a physical barrier, trapping bacteria and hindering the proper function of negative pressure by preventing uniform pressure distribution and fluid removal from the wound bed. *Chronic osteomyelitis* - While chronic osteomyelitis can be challenging, VAC therapy can sometimes be used as an **adjunctive treatment** after surgical debridement to manage the wound and promote granulation tissue formation. - It helps in controlling infection and closing the wound by removing exudates, reducing edema, and improving blood flow. *Abdominal wound* - VAC therapy is commonly used for **abdominal wounds**, especially after damage control surgery or in cases of open abdomen management. - It facilitates closure by promoting granulation, reducing edema, and protecting the abdominal contents. *Surgical wound dehiscence* - **Surgical wound dehiscence** is a common indication for VAC therapy, as it helps to manage the open wound, promote granulation tissue, and prepare the wound for eventual secondary closure or grafting. - VAC therapy reduces surgical site infections, removes exudates, and enhances tissue perfusion, leading to better wound healing outcomes.
Want unlimited practice?
Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.
Start For Free