Arthroplasty — MCQs

Arthroplasty Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 21: A 75-year-old man presents with a fracture of the intracapsular neck of the femur. What is the most common management option for this patient?

A. Hemiarthroplasty (Correct Answer)
B. Total Hip Replacement
C. Dynamic Hip Screw
D. Conservative Management

Explanation: **Hemiarthroplasty** - **Hemiarthroplasty** is the most common management for **intracapsular neck of femur fractures** in elderly patients, especially those who are frail or have substantial comorbidities. - This procedure replaces the **femoral head** with a prosthesis, preserving the native acetabulum, which is sufficient given the higher risk of complications with a full replacement in this age group. *Total Hip Replacement* - **Total hip replacement (THR)** is typically reserved for more active elderly patients with **pre-existing osteoarthritis** or for those requiring revision surgery, due to better functional outcomes but higher surgical risks. - It involves replacing both the **femoral head** and the **acetabulum**, *Dynamic Hip Screw* - A **dynamic hip screw (DHS)** is primarily used for **extracapsular femur fractures** (e.g., trochanteric fractures), where the blood supply to the femoral head is largely preserved. - It involves fixation, which is not suitable for most **intracapsular fractures** due to the disruption of blood supply, increasing the risk of **avascular necrosis** and non-union. *Conservative Management* - **Conservative management** (e.g., bed rest, pain control) is generally not recommended for **intracapsular neck of femur fractures** in mobile elderly patients due to high rates of complications such as **deep vein thrombosis**, **pressure ulcers**, and **avascular necrosis**. - It may be considered only in patients who are **non-ambulatory** or have severe contraindications to surgery.

Question 22: A 70-year-old woman with chronic osteoarthritis of the hip presents with worsening pain and limited mobility despite conservative management. What is the next appropriate step?

A. NSAIDs
B. Physical therapy
C. Intra-articular corticosteroid injections
D. Total hip replacement (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Total hip replacement*** - For **severe osteoarthritis (OA)** causing significant pain and **functional impairment** despite failed conservative management, **total hip replacement** is the most definitive and effective treatment. - This procedure alleviates pain and restores **mobility**, dramatically improving the patient's quality of life. *NSAIDs* - **NSAIDs** are typically part of **initial conservative management** for symptomatic relief in mild to moderate OA, but they have already failed in this patient. - Continued use in elderly patients carries risks of **gastrointestinal, renal, and cardiovascular side effects**, making it a less desirable long-term solution. *Physical therapy* - **Physical therapy** is a crucial component of conservative management to improve **strength, flexibility, and function**, but it often becomes insufficient in advanced OA. - Since this patient has worsening symptoms despite conservative measures, physical therapy alone is unlikely to provide adequate relief. *Intra-articular corticosteroid injections* - **Corticosteroid injections** can provide temporary pain relief by reducing inflammation but do not address the underlying **structural damage** of severe OA. - Their effectiveness diminishes over time, and repeated injections are discouraged due to potential cartilage damage.

Question 23: What is the primary indication for total hip replacement in osteoarthritis?

A. Failed conservative treatment (Correct Answer)
B. Hip dysplasia
C. Intertrochanteric fractures
D. Unstable pelvic fractures

Explanation: ***Failed conservative treatment*** - Total hip replacement (THR) is typically reserved for severe **osteoarthritis** where **non-surgical interventions** like pain medication, physical therapy, and lifestyle modifications no longer provide adequate pain relief or functional improvement. - This option reflects the standard clinical pathway in managing chronic joint degenerative conditions, emphasizing that surgery is a last resort after exhausting less invasive treatments. *Hip dysplasia* - While hip dysplasia can lead to osteoarthritis over time, it is a developmental condition, and its primary treatment in younger individuals might involve osteotomy to correct the abnormal hip structure, rather than immediate THR. - THR is used for hip dysplasia only if it has progressed to severe osteoarthritis and conservative management has failed. *Intertrochanteric fractures* - **Intertrochanteric fractures** of the femur are typically treated with internal fixation (e.g., intramedullary nail or dynamic hip screw) or hemiarthroplasty, depending on the fracture pattern and patient's age and co-morbidities. - Total hip replacement may be considered in a select group of patients with severe comminution involving the femoral head or pre-existing severe osteoarthritis, but it is not the primary indication for these fractures. *Unstable pelvic fractures* - **Unstable pelvic fractures** are acute traumatic injuries that require urgent surgical stabilization, often with external fixation or open reduction and internal fixation. - These fractures are not managed with total hip replacement, which is an elective procedure for chronic degenerative joint disease.

Question 24: What is the most important factor to consider when choosing between total hip replacement and hemiarthroplasty for a geriatric patient with a fragility fracture of the hip?

A. The cheapest available option
B. Surgeon's preference for procedure type
C. Availability of prosthetics
D. Bone quality of the patient (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Bone quality of the patient*** - **Bone quality**, particularly the presence of **osteoporosis**, is crucial as it determines the stability and longevity of the implant in both procedures. **Poor bone quality** can compromise the fixation of the prosthesis, influencing the choice of implant and surgical technique to prevent complications like loosening or periprosthetic fractures. - While both procedures address the fracture, the decision often hinges on the patient's **pre-existing functional status**, **activity level**, and **acetabular cartilage health**. For patients with good acetabular cartilage and a desire for higher function, total hip replacement might be considered, but **bone quality** remains a foundational consideration for implant success. *The cheapest available option* - The **cost** of the procedure should not be the primary determinant in choosing a surgical intervention, especially in cases where optimizing patient outcomes and minimizing complications are paramount. - Prioritizing cost over clinically indicated options can lead to suboptimal outcomes, increased revision rates, and higher long-term healthcare expenditures. *Surgeon's preference for procedure type* - While a surgeon's experience and expertise are important, the decision should be based on **patient-specific factors** and evidence-based guidelines, not solely on personal preference. - Relying solely on **surgeon's preference** without considering individual patient needs and clinical evidence may compromise the optimal treatment plan. *Availability of prosthetics* - While practical, the **availability of specific prosthetics** should not override the clinical decision based on patient physiology and anticipated functional demands. - Decisions should ideally be based on what is best for the patient, with efforts made to resource appropriate implants rather than being limited by immediate stock.

Question 25: Which surgical technique is indicated for a 60-year-old patient with severe arthritis and imaging that shows extensive hip joint damage?

A. Arthroscopic debridement
B. Total hip replacement (Correct Answer)
C. Osteotomy
D. Steroid joint injection

Explanation: ***Total hip replacement*** - For **severe arthritis** and extensive hip joint damage in a 60-year-old, total hip replacement is the most definitive surgical solution to **relieve pain** and restore function. - This procedure involves removing damaged bone and cartilage and replacing them with **prosthetic components**. *Arthroscopic debridement* - This is a minimally invasive procedure, but it is typically reserved for **mild to moderate arthritis** or to address specific mechanical problems like loose bodies, not extensive damage. - It does not address widespread cartilage loss or significant joint degeneration. *Osteotomy* - An osteotomy involves surgically **realigning bones** to shift weight from damaged areas to healthier cartilage. - It's generally considered for younger patients with **early-stage arthritis** or specific deformities, not typically for severe, extensive damage in an older patient. *Steroid joint injection* - Steroid injections are **palliative treatments** aimed at reducing inflammation and pain. - They provide **temporary relief** and do not repair or replace damaged joint structures, making them unsuitable for extensive damage requiring surgical intervention.

Question 26: A 30-year-old patient presents with right hip pain. An X-ray shows an avascular femoral head. What is the best treatment option for this condition if the patient has a collapsed femoral head with acetabular involvement?

A. Core decompression
B. Total hip replacement (Correct Answer)
C. Bone marrow transplantation
D. Non-weight bearing exercises

Explanation: ***Total hip replacement*** - A **collapsed femoral head** with **acetabular involvement** indicates advanced avascular necrosis, making reconstructive options like total hip replacement the most effective treatment. - This procedure alleviates pain and restores function by replacing the damaged joint surfaces with prosthetic components, which is crucial for patients with significant structural damage and symptoms. *Core decompression* - This procedure is primarily considered for **early stages** of avascular necrosis, before significant collapse of the femoral head. - It aims to reduce intraosseous pressure and promote revascularization, but it is less effective once the femoral head has already collapsed and the acetabulum is involved. *Bone marrow transplantation* - Bone marrow transplantation (specifically **autologous concentrated bone marrow aspirate**) can be used as an adjuvant therapy in earlier stages of avascular necrosis to promote healing, but it is not a primary treatment for a collapsed femoral head with acetabular involvement. - This option does not address the structural failure of the joint that has already occurred. *Non-weight bearing exercises* - While **non-weight-bearing** is often advised in early avascular necrosis to reduce stress on the hip, it is a conservative measure and will not reverse the damage of a collapsed femoral head or resolve acetabular involvement. - This approach mainly focuses on preventing further progression rather than treating established severe damage.

Question 27: A 68-year-old female with a history of osteoporosis presents with a hip fracture and is scheduled for hemiarthroplasty. What intraoperative strategies are critical to minimizing the risk of complications?

A. Choice of cemented vs. uncemented prosthesis, blood loss management, and perioperative antibiotic prophylaxis (Correct Answer)
B. Speed of the surgery
C. Patient’s dietary habits
D. Use of the least expensive prosthesis

Explanation: ***Choice of cemented vs. uncemented prosthesis, blood loss management, and perioperative antibiotic prophylaxis*** - Selecting between **cemented and uncemented prostheses** depends on bone quality (osteoporosis often favors cemented to ensure fixation), while **meticulous blood loss management** is crucial in elderly patients with limited physiological reserve. - **Perioperative antibiotic prophylaxis** is paramount to prevent surgical site infections, a common and severe complication in orthopedic surgery. *Speed of the surgery* - While prolonged surgical time can increase complication risk, simply focusing on "speed" without considering other critical factors is an **over-simplification**. - Rushing can lead to errors and inadequate surgical technique, potentially causing more complications than a carefully executed, albeit slightly longer, procedure. *Patient’s dietary habits* - Dietary habits are important for **overall patient health and recovery**, but they are not intraoperative strategies directly affecting the surgical complications. - Nutritional status is a **preoperative consideration** that influences healing, but it doesn't represent an intraoperative decision point. *Use of the least expensive prosthesis* - Cost-effectiveness is a consideration in healthcare, but it should not dictate critical intraoperative decisions like prosthesis choice, especially when patient safety and optimal outcomes are at stake. - Choosing a prosthesis based solely on **cost over clinical suitability** can lead to suboptimal outcomes and higher complication rates.

Question 28: During performing a total hip replacement, the surgeon found destruction of the articular cartilage and multiple wedge-shaped subchondral depressions. What is this called?

A. Osteolysis
B. Osteomyelitis
C. Osteonecrosis (Correct Answer)
D. Osteogenesis

Explanation: ***Osteonecrosis*** - **Osteonecrosis**, also known as **avascular necrosis**, is characterized by the death of bone tissue due to a lack of blood supply, which leads to the collapse of the subchondral bone and articular cartilage destruction. - The description of **wedge-shaped subchondral depressions** and **articular cartilage destruction** is highly indicative of osteonecrosis, especially in the context of advanced hip joint pathology requiring total hip replacement. *Osteolysis* - **Osteolysis** refers to the active resorption of bone, often seen around implants in prosthetic joints due to wear particles, leading to bone loss. - While it involves bone destruction, it typically presents as diffuse bone loss rather than specific wedge-shaped subchondral depressions. *Osteomyelitis* - **Osteomyelitis** is an infection of the bone or bone marrow, often leading to bone destruction, but it is primarily characterized by inflammation and pus formation. - The presented scenario does not mention signs of infection (e.g., fever, pus, inflammation) but focuses purely on structural destruction consistent with vascular compromise. *Osteogenesis* - **Osteogenesis** is the process of bone formation or development. - This term describes the creation of bone tissue and is the opposite of bone destruction, making it an incorrect answer for a condition involving cartilage and bone deterioration.

Question 29: Treatment of choice for displaced fracture neck femur in a 40 years old female

A. None of the options
B. Bipolar hemiarthroplasty
C. Multiple screw fixation (Correct Answer)
D. THR

Explanation: ***Multiple screw fixation*** - For a **displaced femoral neck fracture** in a younger patient (40 years old), **internal fixation** with multiple screws is generally the preferred treatment to preserve the native **femoral head**. - This approach aims to achieve **anatomical reduction** and stable fixation, allowing for bone healing and a better long-term functional outcome in active individuals. *Bipolar hemiarthroplasty* - This procedure is typically reserved for older, less active patients with **displaced femoral neck fractures**, particularly those with pre-existing conditions that might limit their longevity or activity level. - While it replaces the femoral head, it does not preserve the native joint, which is a less desirable outcome in a 40-year-old. *THR* - **Total hip replacement** is usually considered for older patients, or younger patients with **pre-existing arthritis** or failed internal fixation, due to concerns about the prosthesis's longevity and potential future revisions. - In a 40-year-old, the goal is typically to preserve the native joint if possible, unless there are other complicating factors. *None of the options* - Internal fixation with multiple screws is a well-established and appropriate treatment for a displaced femoral neck fracture in a 40-year-old patient. - Therefore, one of the provided options is indeed the correct treatment choice for this specific scenario.

Question 30: After chronic use of steroids, a patient presents with severe pain in the right hip and immobility. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Avascular necrosis (Correct Answer)
B. Hip dislocation
C. Osteoarthritis
D. Perthes disease

Explanation: ***Avascular necrosis*** - Chronic **steroid use** is a major risk factor for avascular necrosis (AVN), particularly affecting the **femoral head**, leading to severe hip pain and immobility. - AVN occurs due to the death of bone tissue resulting from an **interruption of blood supply**, often manifesting as pain that worsens with weight-bearing. *Perthes disease* - This condition is a form of avascular necrosis of the femoral head, but it primarily affects **children**, typically between 4 and 10 years old. - The patient's age (adult) makes Perthes disease an unlikely diagnosis. *Hip dislocation* - Hip dislocation presents with **acute, severe pain** and an inability to bear weight, often following significant trauma. - There is no mention of trauma, and the patient has a history of chronic steroid use, which is not a direct cause of hip dislocation. *Osteoarthritis* - While osteoarthritis causes hip pain and stiffness, it typically develops **gradually** and is associated with aging, obesity, or previous joint injury. - The acute, severe pain after chronic steroid use is more characteristic of avascular necrosis.

Practice by Chapter

Principles of Joint Replacement

Practice Questions

Total Hip Arthroplasty

Practice Questions

Total Knee Arthroplasty

Practice Questions

Shoulder Arthroplasty

Practice Questions

Elbow Arthroplasty

Practice Questions

Ankle Arthroplasty

Practice Questions

Revision Arthroplasty

Practice Questions

Implant Materials and Design

Practice Questions

Complications of Arthroplasty

Practice Questions

Infected Arthroplasty Management

Practice Questions

Rehabilitation After Arthroplasty

Practice Questions

Long-term Outcomes and Surveillance

Practice Questions

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