Diseases of the Retina Practice Questions

Q: Biomicroscopic examination of the fundus is performed with the help of which of the following?

Both of the above. **Explanation:** Biomicroscopic examination of the fundus (Slit-lamp biomicroscopy) allows for a stereoscopic, magnified view of the retina and vitreous. This is achieved using two primary types of lenses: 1. **Hruby Lens (-58.6 D):** This is a **planoconcave** lens that acts as a neutralizing lens. When placed close to the eye, it diverges light to neutralize the eye's refractive power, forming a **virtual, erect, and magnified image**. Because it is a "non-contact" lens that provides a direct view, it is highly effective for examining the posterior pole. 2. **High-plus Non-contact Lenses (+78 D / +90 D):** These are **convex** aspheric lenses. They act as condensing lenses that form a **real, inverted, and reversed image** in front of the lens. The +78 D lens offers a good balance between magnification and field of view, making it a standard tool for detailed optic disc and macular evaluation. **Why Option C is correct:** Both the Hruby lens and the +78 D lens are standard instruments used in slit-lamp biomicroscopy to visualize the fundus, albeit through different optical principles (concave vs. convex). **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Goldmann 3-Mirror Lens:** A contact lens used for biomicroscopy. The central part views the posterior pole, while the three mirrors view the peripheral retina and the anterior chamber angle (gonioscopy). * **Image Characteristics:** Remember that **Direct Ophthalmoscopy** and **Hruby Lens** produce **Erect** images, while **Indirect Ophthalmoscopy** and **+78D/+90D lenses** produce **Inverted** images. * **Field of View vs. Magnification:** As the dioptric power of a convex lens increases (e.g., from +60D to +90D), the magnification decreases, but the field of view increases.

Q: A patient complains of sudden onset blindness without experiencing any pain. What is the likely cause?

Vitreous haemorrhage. ### Explanation The clinical presentation of **sudden, painless loss of vision** is a classic "must-know" for NEET-PG. **Why Vitreous Haemorrhage is correct:** Vitreous haemorrhage (VH) occurs when blood extravasates into the vitreous cavity, often due to proliferative diabetic retinopathy (most common cause), retinal tears, or trauma. Because the vitreous is normally transparent, the sudden presence of blood blocks light from reaching the retina, leading to an immediate drop in vision. Since the retina and vitreous lack pain fibers, the process is entirely painless. Patients often describe "floaters" or "cobwebs" before total vision loss occurs. **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Glaucoma:** Acute Angle Closure Glaucoma presents with sudden vision loss, but it is **exceedingly painful** and associated with a "stony hard" eye, nausea, and vomiting. Chronic glaucoma is painless but causes gradual, not sudden, vision loss. * **Cataract:** This causes a **gradual, progressive**, and painless blurring of vision (not sudden blindness). * **Age-related Macular Degeneration (ARMD):** While the "wet" type can cause relatively rapid vision loss due to subretinal hemorrhage, it typically results in **metamorphopsia** (distorted vision) or a central scotoma rather than total sudden blindness. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Differential Diagnosis for Sudden Painless Vision Loss:** 1. Central Retinal Artery Occlusion (CRAO) – Look for "Cherry Red Spot." 2. Central Retinal Vein Occlusion (CRVO) – Look for "Blood and Thunder" fundus. 3. Vitreous Haemorrhage – Look for "Absent Red Reflex." 4. Retinal Detachment – Look for "Flashers and Floaters" followed by a "curtain falling." * **Gold Standard Investigation for VH:** If the fundus is not visible due to hemorrhage, perform a **B-Scan Ultrasound** to rule out underlying retinal detachment.

Q: In a young patient presenting with recurrent vitreous hemorrhage, what is the most likely diagnosis?

Eale's disease. **Explanation:** The correct answer is **Eale’s disease**. This condition is an idiopathic, inflammatory peripheral perivasculitis (primarily affecting the venules) that typically presents in **young, healthy males** (20–40 years). **Why Eale’s Disease is correct:** The pathogenesis involves three stages: perivascular inflammation (sheathing), peripheral capillary non-perfusion (ischemia), and subsequent **neovascularization**. These fragile new vessels (usually at the junction of perfused and non-perfused retina) easily rupture, leading to **recurrent vitreous hemorrhage**. In the Indian subcontinent, it is frequently associated with hypersensitivity to *Mycobacterium tuberculosis* protein. **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Central Retinal Vein Occlusion (CRVO):** Typically occurs in older patients with systemic risk factors like hypertension. While it can lead to neovascular glaucoma, it is not the classic cause of recurrent vitreous hemorrhage in the young. * **Proliferative Retinopathy:** While Proliferative Diabetic Retinopathy (PDR) is a major cause of vitreous hemorrhage, it is usually bilateral and associated with a long-standing history of diabetes, rather than being the primary diagnosis for an otherwise healthy young patient. * **Coat’s Disease:** This is a non-inflammatory idiopathic condition characterized by telangiectatic retinal vessels and **massive subretinal exudation** ("lightbulb" appearance). It typically presents as leucocoria in young children, not recurrent vitreous hemorrhage. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Demographic:** Young adult males (20-30s). * **Classic Sign:** Retinal perivascular "sheathing" (candle-wax dripping appearance). * **Association:** Positive Mantoux test is common. * **Management:** Photocoagulation for ischemia/neovascularization; Vitrectomy for non-clearing vitreous hemorrhage.

Q: Coat's disease is characterized by which of the following features?

Treatable with laser photocoagulation. **Explanation:** **Coats’ Disease** is an idiopathic condition characterized by **telangiectatic and aneurysmal retinal vessels** leading to massive subretinal exudation (rich in cholesterol crystals), often resulting in exudative retinal detachment. 1. **Why Option D is Correct:** The primary goal of treatment is to ablate the abnormal, leaking telangiectatic vessels. **Laser photocoagulation** (for posterior lesions) or **cryotherapy** (for peripheral lesions) are the mainstays of treatment to stop the leakage and promote the resorption of subretinal fluid. In advanced cases with total detachment, surgical intervention may be required. 2. **Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Option A:** It is **not** equal in sex incidence; it shows a strong **male predilection** (approx. 85% of cases). * **Option B:** The hallmark is **telangiectasia and exudation**, not peripheral neovascularization (which is more characteristic of Eales’ disease or ROP). * **Option C:** It is a **non-hereditary, sporadic** condition. There is no genetic inheritance pattern (unlike Retinoblastoma). **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Demographics:** Typically affects **young males** (first decade of life) and is **unilateral** in 90% of cases. * **Clinical Presentation:** Patients often present with **Leukocoria** (white pupillary reflex), making it a crucial differential diagnosis for Retinoblastoma. * **Pathognomonic Feature:** "Lightbulb" aneurysms and massive **hard exudates** (subretinal). * **Imaging:** On CT/MRI, Coats' disease shows high density/signal due to proteinaceous exudate but **lacks the calcification** typically seen in Retinoblastoma.

Q: All of the following are true about retinitis pigmentosa EXCEPT:

Early diagnosis and treatment prevents progression. **Explanation:** Retinitis Pigmentosa (RP) is a group of hereditary progressive retinal dystrophies primarily affecting the rod photoreceptors. **Why Option B is the Correct Answer (The False Statement):** Currently, there is **no definitive cure or treatment** to prevent the progression of Retinitis Pigmentosa. While certain interventions like Vitamin A palmitate, lutein, or gene therapy (e.g., Luxturna for RPE65 mutation) may slow the decline or treat specific subtypes, the disease remains inherently progressive, leading to significant visual impairment over time. **Analysis of Other Options:** * **Option A (Genetic inheritance):** RP is highly heterogeneous. It can be inherited as Autosomal Dominant (best prognosis), Autosomal Recessive (most common), or **X-linked (most severe)**. * **Option C (Visual acuity):** RP primarily affects the peripheral retina (rods) first, causing **nyctalopia** (night blindness) and "tunnel vision." Central visual acuity is typically preserved until the late stages, unless complicated by Cystoid Macular Edema (CME) or posterior subcapsular cataracts. * **Option D (Systemic abnormalities):** Approximately 20-30% of cases are syndromic. The most common is **Usher syndrome** (RP + sensorineural hearing loss). Others include **Bassen-Kornzweig syndrome** (fat malabsorption) and **Refsum disease** (phytanic acid storage). **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Classic Triad:** 1. Bony-spicule pigmentation (perivascular), 2. Arteriolar attenuation (narrowing), 3. Waxy pallor of the optic disc. * **Electroretinogram (ERG):** The most sensitive test for early diagnosis; shows a reduced "a" and "b" wave amplitude (scotopic ERG is affected first). * **Refsum Disease:** Important because it is one of the few treatable causes of RP (via dietary restriction of phytanic acid).

Q: What is retinoscopy used to assess?

Error of refraction. **Explanation:** **Retinoscopy** (also known as skiascopy or the shadow test) is an objective method used to determine the **error of refraction** of the eye. It is based on the principle of **Foucault’s test**, which involves observing the movement of the light reflex from the retina (the red reflex) when a light source is moved across the pupil. By neutralizing this movement using trial lenses, the clinician can calculate the patient's refractive state (myopia, hypermetropia, or astigmatism) without requiring subjective feedback from the patient. **Analysis of Options:** * **Option A (Field of vision):** This is assessed using **Perimetry** (e.g., Humphrey Field Analyzer or Goldman Perimetry), which maps the peripheral and central visual field. * **Option C (Curvature of the retina):** There is no standard clinical test specifically for "retinal curvature." However, the curvature of the **cornea** is measured using **Keratometry**, and the shape of the posterior pole can be visualized via B-scan ultrasonography or OCT. * **Option D:** Incorrect, as Option B is the standard clinical application. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Working Distance:** Retinoscopy is usually performed at 66 cm (requiring a +1.5D deduction) or 50 cm (requiring a +2.0D deduction) to account for the vergence of light. * **Reflex Movements:** * **"With" movement:** Indicates hypermetropia, emmetropia, or myopia less than the working distance (corrected with convex/plus lenses). * **"Against" movement:** Indicates myopia greater than the working distance (corrected with concave/minus lenses). * **Static vs. Dynamic:** Static retinoscopy measures distance refraction (accommodation relaxed), while dynamic retinoscopy (e.g., Tait’s or Sheard’s) assesses the accommodative response.

Q: A patient presented with sudden onset of floaters and perception of a curtain (veil) falling in front of the eye. Which one of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis?

Retinal detachment. **Explanation:** **1. Why Retinal Detachment (RD) is the Correct Answer:** The clinical triad of **photopsia** (flashes of light), **floaters** (due to vitreous condensation or RPE release), and a **painless "curtain-like" loss of vision** is the classic presentation of Rhegmatogenous Retinal Detachment. The "curtain falling" sensation occurs as the subretinal fluid accumulates, causing the sensory retina to separate from the retinal pigment epithelium (RPE), leading to a progressive visual field defect corresponding to the area of detachment. **2. Why the Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Eales Disease:** This is an idiopathic peripheral perivasculitis. While it can lead to RD or vitreous hemorrhage, its primary presentation is usually recurrent, painless vitreous hemorrhage in young males. * **Vitreous Hemorrhage:** While this presents with sudden floaters and blurred vision, it is typically described as "black streaks" or a "red haze" rather than a distinct curtain-like field defect. * **Glaucoma:** Acute Congestive Glaucoma presents with sudden vision loss, but it is associated with **severe pain**, halos around lights, and a cloudy cornea, not a "curtain" effect. Chronic glaucoma causes peripheral field loss so gradual that patients are often asymptomatic until late stages. **3. High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Shafer’s Sign:** The presence of "tobacco dust" (pigment cells) in the anterior vitreous is pathognomonic for a retinal tear. * **Most Common Site:** The **Superior-Temporal** quadrant is the most common site for retinal breaks. * **Surgical Management:** For Rhegmatogenous RD, the gold standard is **Scleral Buckling** or **Pars Plana Vitrectomy (PPV)** with internal tamponade (gas or silicone oil). * **Differential:** If the curtain "comes and goes" (transient), think **Amaurosis Fugax** (carotid artery disease); if it is "persistent," think **Retinal Detachment**.

Q: "Puff-ball" opacities in the vitreous are pathognomonic of which condition?

Fungal endophthalmitis. **Explanation:** **Fungal Endophthalmitis** (Correct Answer) is characterized by the presence of discrete, fluffy, white, round opacities in the vitreous humor. These are classically described as **"Puff-balls"** or **"Cotton-balls."** When these opacities are linked together by inflammatory strands, they create the **"String of pearls"** appearance. These findings represent focal collections of fungi (most commonly *Candida albicans*) and inflammatory cells. This is a high-yield clinical sign used to differentiate fungal etiology from bacterial endophthalmitis, which typically presents with a more diffuse, hazy vitritis. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Pars planitis:** This is a form of intermediate uveitis characterized by **"Snowballs"** (white inflammatory aggregates in the inferior vitreous) and **"Snowbanking"** (exudates over the pars plana). While similar in name, "Puff-balls" is the specific terminology reserved for fungal infections. * **Exudative retinopathy of Coats:** This is a non-inflammatory vascular disease characterized by telangiectatic vessels and massive subretinal yellow exudates. It does not typically present with vitreous opacities. * **Sympathetic ophthalmitis:** This is a bilateral granulomatous panuveitis following trauma. Its hallmark pathological finding is **Dalen-Fuchs nodules** (sub-RPE nodules), not vitreous puff-balls. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **"String of pearls":** Pathognomonic for Fungal Endophthalmitis (Candida). * **"Snowbanking/Snowballs":** Pathognomonic for Pars Planitis. * **Treatment of choice for Fungal Endophthalmitis:** Intravitreal Amphotericin B or Voriconazole. * **Commonest cause of Endogenous Fungal Endophthalmitis:** *Candida albicans* (often associated with IV drug use or long-term indwelling catheters).

Q: Knudson's two-hit hypothesis is associated with which of the following conditions?

Retinoblastoma. **Explanation:** **Retinoblastoma** is the correct answer because it is the classic clinical model used by Alfred Knudson in 1971 to formulate the **"Two-Hit Hypothesis"** of oncogenesis. The hypothesis explains the development of cancer due to mutations in tumor suppressor genes (specifically the **RB1 gene** on chromosome **13q14**): * **First Hit:** In familial cases, the first mutation is inherited (germline) and present in all cells. In sporadic cases, it occurs spontaneously in a single retinal cell. * **Second Hit:** A second, somatic mutation occurs in the same cell, leading to the loss of both alleles. This "loss of heterozygosity" results in the absence of the pRb protein, leading to uncontrolled cell proliferation. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Glaucoma:** This is a group of ocular diseases characterized by progressive optic neuropathy; while some forms (like Juvenile Open Angle Glaucoma) have genetic links (e.g., MYOC gene), they do not follow the two-hit tumor suppressor model. * **C. Optic Glioma:** Associated with Neurofibromatosis Type 1 (NF1 gene), but it was not the primary model for Knudson’s hypothesis. * **D. Meningioma:** While these can involve the loss of the NF2 gene (merlin), they are not the classic condition associated with the origin of the two-hit theory. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common** intraocular malignancy of childhood. * **Most common sign:** Leukocoria (White pupillary reflex). Second most common: Strabismus. * **Pathology:** Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes (highly specific) and Homer-Wright rosettes. * **Calcification:** A hallmark feature seen on B-scan USG or CT scan. * **Trilateral Retinoblastoma:** Bilateral retinoblastoma associated with a pinealoblastoma.

Q: An HIV patient complains of visual disturbances. Fundal examination shows bilateral retinal exudates and perivascular haemorrhages. Which of the following viruses is most likely responsible for this retinitis?

Cytomegalovirus. **Explanation:** The clinical presentation of bilateral retinal exudates and perivascular hemorrhages in an HIV-positive patient is classic for **Cytomegalovirus (CMV) Retinitis**. This is the most common opportunistic ocular infection in AIDS patients, typically occurring when the **CD4+ T-cell count drops below 50 cells/µL**. The characteristic fundoscopic appearance is often described as a **"Pizza-pie"** or **"Cottage cheese and ketchup"** retinopathy. This represents areas of white, granular retinal necrosis (exudates) associated with prominent intraretinal hemorrhages following the distribution of retinal vessels (perivasculitis). **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) & Varicella Zoster Virus (VZV):** These typically cause **Acute Retinal Necrosis (ARN)** or **Progressive Outer Retinal Necrosis (PORN)**. Unlike CMV, these conditions are characterized by rapid progression, minimal inflammation/hemorrhage (in PORN), and well-defined peripheral necrotic patches rather than the perivascular "pizza-pie" appearance. * **Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV):** While EBV is associated with Burkitt lymphoma and Oropharyngeal carcinoma in HIV patients, it is not a recognized cause of primary viral retinitis. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** 1. **CMV Retinitis** is the leading cause of blindness in AIDS patients. 2. **Treatment of Choice:** Intravenous **Ganciclovir**. Alternatives include Valganciclovir, Foscarnet, and Cidofovir. 3. **Frosted Branch Angiitis:** A severe form of perivascular sheathing seen in CMV retinitis. 4. **Rhegmatogenous Retinal Detachment** is a common late complication due to retinal thinning and holes in necrotic areas.

Question 1

Biomicroscopic examination of the fundus is performed with the help of which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Both of the above

Answer

-58.6 D Hruby lens

Answer

+78 D small diameter lens

Answer

None of the above

Question 2

A patient complains of sudden onset blindness without experiencing any pain. What is the likely cause?

Accepted Answer

Vitreous haemorrhage

Answer

Glaucoma

Answer

Cataract

Answer

Age-related macular degeneration

Question 3

In a young patient presenting with recurrent vitreous hemorrhage, what is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Eale's disease

Answer

Central Retinal Vein Occlusion (CRVO)

Answer

Proliferative Retinopathy

Answer

Coat's disease

Question 4

Coat's disease is characterized by which of the following features?

Accepted Answer

Treatable with laser photocoagulation

Answer

Equal sex incidence

Answer

Peripheral neovascularization

Answer

Autosomal dominant inheritance pattern

Question 5

All of the following are true about retinitis pigmentosa EXCEPT:

Accepted Answer

Early diagnosis and treatment prevents progression

Answer

Genetic inheritance (e.g., X-linked)

Answer

Visual acuity is not diminished until late in the disease course

Answer

Associated with systemic abnormalities

Question 6

What is retinoscopy used to assess?

Accepted Answer

Error of refraction

Answer

Field of vision

Answer

Curvature of the retina

Answer

None of the above

Question 7

A patient presented with sudden onset of floaters and perception of a curtain (veil) falling in front of the eye. Which one of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Retinal detachment

Answer

Eales disease

Answer

Vitreous hemorrhage

Answer

Glaucoma

Question 8

"Puff-ball" opacities in the vitreous are pathognomonic of which condition?

Accepted Answer

Fungal endophthalmitis

Answer

Pars planitis

Answer

Exudative retinopathy of Coats

Answer

Sympathetic ophthalmitis

Question 9

Knudson's two-hit hypothesis is associated with which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

Retinoblastoma

Answer

Glaucoma

Answer

Optic glioma

Answer

Meningioma

Question 10

An HIV patient complains of visual disturbances. Fundal examination shows bilateral retinal exudates and perivascular haemorrhages. Which of the following viruses is most likely responsible for this retinitis?

Accepted Answer

Cytomegalovirus

Answer

Herpes simplex virus

Answer

Varicella zoster virus

Answer

Epstein-Barr virus

Diseases of the Retina — MCQs

Diseases of the Retina — MCQs

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