Urogynecology — MCQs
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A 52 year old lady presents with constant leakage of urine and dysuria two weeks after a complicated total abdominal hysterectomy. A diagnosis of Vesicovaginal fistula is suspected. The most important test for the diagnosis is:
In uterine prolapse, how do you assess if a pessary ring is properly in place?
A 40-year-old G3P3 complains of urge incontinence. Sometimes she gets the urge to void, but passes urine before reaching the washroom. She had three normal spontaneous vaginal deliveries of infants weighing between 3.5 and 3.8 kg. Urine examination is normal. All of the following are appropriate treatments in the management of this patient EXCEPT:
3 pad test is done for:
Which of the following accurately describes management of Grade 3 pelvic organ prolapse in an elderly woman who is a poor surgical candidate?
A 38-year old patient who had a total abdominal hysterectomy presents 2 months postop complaining of leakage of urine from the vagina. On examination, no fistula can be identified. Dilute methylene blue is injected into the bladder through a Foley catheter and a tampon is placed in the vagina. The patient is found to be wet, but there is no blue stain anywhere on the tampon. Which of the following is true?
55 year old lady complains of mass in the vagina, which is reducible & increases on defecation. The diagnosis is?
What is the primary indication for Moschowitz's surgery?
Which of the following is a commonly accepted surgical treatment option for cystocele?
Manchester repair is another name for which surgical procedure used to treat uterine prolapse?
Urogynecology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 121: A 52 year old lady presents with constant leakage of urine and dysuria two weeks after a complicated total abdominal hysterectomy. A diagnosis of Vesicovaginal fistula is suspected. The most important test for the diagnosis is:
- A. Urine culture
- B. Cystoscopy
- C. Triple Swab Test (Correct Answer)
- D. IVP
Explanation: ***Triple Swab Test*** - The **Triple Swab Test** (also known as the **dye test** or **tampon test**) is the **gold standard diagnostic test** for confirming vesicovaginal fistula. - **Methylene blue** or indigo carmine dye is instilled into the bladder via a catheter, and tampons are placed in the vagina. - If the tampon stains blue, it **confirms the diagnosis** of vesicovaginal fistula by demonstrating direct communication between bladder and vagina. - This is a **simple, non-invasive, and definitive diagnostic test** that directly proves the presence of a fistula. *Cystoscopy* - **Cystoscopy** is important for **evaluation and surgical planning** rather than initial diagnosis. - It allows direct visualization of the **fistula site, size, and proximity to ureteral orifices**, which is crucial for planning repair. - While it can identify the fistula, it is an **invasive procedure** and is typically performed after diagnosis is confirmed, to characterize the fistula before surgical intervention. *Urine culture* - A **urine culture** identifies bacterial infections and guides antibiotic treatment for urinary tract infections. - While UTIs commonly accompany vesicovaginal fistula and cause dysuria, urine culture **does not diagnose the fistula itself**. - It is useful for managing concurrent infection but not for confirming the anatomical defect. *IVP* - **Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP)** is primarily used to assess **upper urinary tract pathology** and ureteral integrity. - It may show contrast leakage but is **not specific for vesicovaginal fistula** and does not provide direct confirmation. - IVP is more useful for ruling out ureteral injury or ureterovaginal fistula rather than diagnosing vesicovaginal fistula.
Question 122: In uterine prolapse, how do you assess if a pessary ring is properly in place?
- A. If Bleeding does not occur
- B. If patient feels discomfort
- C. If not expelled after increased abdominal pressure (Correct Answer)
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***If not expelled after increased abdominal pressure*** - A properly fitted pessary should remain in place even with increased **intra-abdominal pressure**, such as during coughing, straining, or Valsalva maneuvers, indicating stable support for the uterus. - This assesses the pessary's ability to mechanically support the **pelvic organs** and prevent prolapse recurrence during daily activities. *If Bleeding does not occur* - While bleeding after pessary insertion can indicate trauma or irritation, the absence of bleeding alone does not confirm proper fit or efficacy in preventing **prolapse**. - Bleeding can occur due to various reasons, and it is not a direct measure of the pessary's ability to maintain its position or provide support. *If patient feels discomfort* - Discomfort can indicate either an improperly fitted pessary (too large causing pressure, or too small causing rubbing) or an initial adjustment period. - However, the absence of discomfort does not guarantee the pessary will stay in place during activities that increase **abdominal pressure**, which is crucial for prolapse management. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because the ability of the pessary to remain in place during increased abdominal pressure is a key indicator of its proper fit and effectiveness.
Question 123: A 40-year-old G3P3 complains of urge incontinence. Sometimes she gets the urge to void, but passes urine before reaching the washroom. She had three normal spontaneous vaginal deliveries of infants weighing between 3.5 and 3.8 kg. Urine examination is normal. All of the following are appropriate treatments in the management of this patient EXCEPT:
- A. Kegel exercises
- B. Biofeedback
- C. Bladder training
- D. Antidepressants (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Antidepressants*** - **Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)** like imipramine have anticholinergic properties that can help with urge incontinence, but they are **NOT first-line therapy**. - **Anticholinergic medications** (oxybutynin, tolterodine, solifenacin) are the **preferred pharmacological agents** for urge incontinence, not antidepressants. - TCAs have **significant side effects** including sedation, orthostatic hypotension, and cardiac effects, making them less suitable as initial treatment. - They are typically reserved for **refractory cases** or when anticholinergics are contraindicated. *Kegel exercises* - **Pelvic floor muscle training (Kegel exercises)** is recommended as **first-line therapy** for urge incontinence per ACOG guidelines. - While more effective for stress incontinence, they improve overall **pelvic floor function** and bladder control. - They help strengthen the **periurethral and pelvic floor muscles**, which can help suppress detrusor contractions. *Biofeedback* - **Biofeedback** is an effective adjunct to pelvic floor muscle training for urge incontinence. - It helps patients **identify and control pelvic floor muscles** correctly during Kegel exercises. - Provides real-time feedback to improve the efficacy of **behavioral therapy**. *Bladder training* - **Bladder training** is a **cornerstone first-line treatment** for urge incontinence. - Focuses on **scheduled voiding** and gradually increasing the inter-voiding interval. - Helps patients learn to **suppress urgency** and regain bladder control through behavioral modification.
Question 124: 3 pad test is done for:
- A. Rectovaginal fistula
- B. Urethrocoele
- C. Stress incontinence (Correct Answer)
- D. Urinary fistula
Explanation: ***Stress incontinence*** - The **3-pad test (pad weighing test)** is a standardized, objective method to **quantify urinary incontinence**, particularly stress incontinence - The test involves weighing absorbent pads before and after a specified period (1-hour test or 24-hour test) to measure the exact amount of urine leakage - **Stress incontinence** is the most common indication, where involuntary urine leakage occurs during activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure (coughing, sneezing, laughing, exercise) - The test helps **grade severity** (mild <50g, moderate 50-100g, severe >100g) and **monitor treatment response** - It provides objective documentation of incontinence severity for clinical decision-making *Urinary fistula* - A urinary fistula is an abnormal communication between the urinary tract and another structure (vesicovaginal, ureterovaginal fistula) - While severe continuous leakage occurs, diagnosis is made by **clinical examination**, **dye tests** (methylene blue test, double dye test), **speculum examination**, and **imaging** (cystoscopy, IVP) - The pad test is not the primary diagnostic method for fistulas, though it may show continuous heavy leakage *Rectovaginal fistula* - This is an abnormal connection between the rectum and vagina, causing passage of stool or gas through the vagina - The 3-pad test specifically measures **urine loss**, not fecal incontinence - Not relevant for rectovaginal fistula assessment *Urethrocoele* - A urethrocoele is a herniation or prolapse of the urethra into the anterior vaginal wall - This is a **structural/anatomical diagnosis** made by pelvic examination - While patients may have associated stress incontinence, the pad test measures the leakage, not the anatomical defect itself - Diagnosis is clinical, not based on pad testing
Question 125: Which of the following accurately describes management of Grade 3 pelvic organ prolapse in an elderly woman who is a poor surgical candidate?
- A. Bladder sling
- B. Vaginal hysterectomy
- C. Pessary placement (Correct Answer)
- D. Kegel exercises
Explanation: ***Pessary placement*** - **Pessaries** are a less invasive, effective option for **pelvic organ prolapse** management in patients who are **poor surgical candidates**, helping to support prolapsed organs. - They also serve as a good temporary option to improve symptoms before surgical intervention. *Bladder sling* - A **bladder sling** is a surgical procedure used primarily to treat **stress urinary incontinence**, not pelvic organ prolapse. - This option is unsuitable for a patient who is a **poor surgical candidate**. *Vaginal hysterectomy* - A **vaginal hysterectomy** involves surgical removal of the uterus through the vagina, which is a definitive treatment for **uterine prolapse**. - However, surgical interventions are contraindicated for an **elderly woman** who is a **poor surgical candidate** due to potential risks. *Kegel exercises* - **Kegel exercises** are beneficial for strengthening the **pelvic floor muscles** and preventing the progression of early-stage prolapse or improving mild symptoms. - However, they are generally **insufficient** for managing **Grade 3 pelvic organ prolapse**, which requires more robust support.
Question 126: A 38-year old patient who had a total abdominal hysterectomy presents 2 months postop complaining of leakage of urine from the vagina. On examination, no fistula can be identified. Dilute methylene blue is injected into the bladder through a Foley catheter and a tampon is placed in the vagina. The patient is found to be wet, but there is no blue stain anywhere on the tampon. Which of the following is true?
- A. The patient probably has a ureterovaginal fistula (Correct Answer)
- B. The patient probably has stress incontinence
- C. The volume of methylene blue was probably insufficient
- D. The patient most likely has a vesicovaginal fistula
Explanation: ***The patient probably has a ureterovaginal fistula*** - Leakage of urine from the vagina following hysterectomy, without any blue staining on the vaginal tampon after methylene blue instillation into the bladder, strongly suggests a **ureterovaginal fistula**. - In this scenario, the urine is originating from the ureter, bypassing the bladder, which is why the bladder-instilled dye does not appear in the vaginal leakage. *The patient probably has stress incontinence, which does not cause continuous leakage of urine.* - Stress incontinence typically involves intermittent leakage with increased **intra-abdominal pressure** (e.g., coughing, sneezing), not continuous leakage as described. - Furthermore, if it were stress incontinence, the urine would come from the bladder, and the methylene blue would likely stain the tampon. *The volume of methylene blue was probably insufficient, but this does not explain the absence of blue staining.* - The volume of methylene blue in the bladder would not affect its presence in a leak that originates from the ureter, beyond simply needing enough to confirm bladder integrity. - The key finding is the **absence of blue stain** despite wetness, indicating the leak is not from the bladder. *The patient most likely has a small apical vesicovaginal fistula, but this would usually result in some blue staining.* - A **vesicovaginal fistula** connects the bladder directly to the vagina, meaning the methylene blue injected into the bladder *would* stain the tampon. - The complete absence of blue stain rules out a bladder-vaginal connection for the source of leakage.
Question 127: 55 year old lady complains of mass in the vagina, which is reducible & increases on defecation. The diagnosis is?
- A. Rectal prolapse
- B. Uterine prolapse (Correct Answer)
- C. Cervical fibroid
- D. Vaginal cancer
Explanation: ***Uterine prolapse*** - A mass in the vagina that is **reducible** and **increases on defecation** is highly characteristic of uterine prolapse due to increased abdominal pressure. - This condition is common in multiparous older women due to weakening of the **pelvic floor muscles** and **ligaments**. *Rectal prolapse* - While also presenting as a reducible mass that increases on defecation, a **rectal prolapse** typically involves eversion of the rectal wall through the **anus**, not specifically "in the vagina." - A definitive diagnosis would require visual inspection to differentiate between rectal tissue and vaginal/cervical tissue. *Cervical fibroid* - A **cervical fibroid** (leiomyoma) might present as a mass, but it is typically **fixed** and **non-reducible**, unlike the description given. - While it can cause pressure symptoms, its size would not fluctuate significantly with defecation or be fully reducible. *Vaginal cancer* - **Vaginal cancer** would present as a mass that is typically **non-reducible**, **fixed**, and often associated with abnormal bleeding or discharge rather than intermittent protrusion. - The mass would not typically change in size or reducibility with maneuvers like defecation.
Question 128: What is the primary indication for Moschowitz's surgery?
- A. Cervical hernia
- B. Pelvic organ prolapse
- C. Uterine fibroids
- D. Enterocele prevention (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Enterocele prevention*** - **Moschowitz's surgery** is a procedure primarily indicated for the prevention and treatment of an **enterocele**, which is a type of pelvic organ prolapse. - This surgery involves **obliteration of the Pouch of Douglas** by plicating the peritoneum to reinforce the rectovaginal septum and prevent small bowel herniation. - The procedure is most commonly performed during **vaginal vault suspension** or other pelvic reconstructive surgeries to prevent future enterocele formation. *Cervical hernia* - There is no recognized medical condition specifically termed a **"cervical hernia"** related to the uterine cervix. - Hernias typically involve protrusion of tissue through a weak point in muscle or fascia, most commonly in the abdominal wall, not the cervix. *Pelvic organ prolapse* - While **enterocele** is indeed a type of pelvic organ prolapse, Moschowitz's surgery specifically addresses enterocele rather than pelvic organ prolapse in general. - The question asks for the **primary** indication, which is the specific condition (enterocele) rather than the broader category. - Other forms of pelvic organ prolapse, such as **cystocele** (bladder prolapse) or **rectocele** (rectal prolapse), are treated with different surgical techniques. *Uterine fibroids* - **Uterine fibroids** are benign tumors of the uterus and are typically treated with procedures like myomectomy or hysterectomy, or medical management. - Moschowitz's surgery does not address uterine fibroids or their associated symptoms.
Question 129: Which of the following is a commonly accepted surgical treatment option for cystocele?
- A. Transvaginal tape
- B. Transobturator tape
- C. All of the options
- D. Anterior colporrhaphy (surgical repair) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Anterior colporrhaphy (surgical repair)*** - This procedure directly repairs the weakened **anterior vaginal wall** and reinforces the **bladder support**, directly addressing the anatomical defect of a cystocele. - It involves plicating the **fascia** between the bladder and the vagina, effectively pushing the bladder back into its correct position. *Transvaginal tape* - **Transvaginal tape** procedures are primarily used to treat **stress urinary incontinence** by supporting the mid-urethra, not for prolapse of the bladder itself. - While prolapse and incontinence can coexist, this specific surgery is not the primary treatment for a **cystocele**. *Transobturator tape* - Similar to transvaginal tape, **transobturator tape** is also a procedure designed to treat **stress urinary incontinence** by providing support beneath the urethra. - It does not correct the **bladder prolapse** that defines a cystocele. *All of the options* - This option is incorrect because both **transvaginal tape** and **transobturator tape** are procedures for **stress urinary incontinence**, not for the direct surgical treatment of **cystocele**. - **Anterior colporrhaphy** is the specific and most appropriate surgical repair for a cystocele among the choices.
Question 130: Manchester repair is another name for which surgical procedure used to treat uterine prolapse?
- A. Fothergill operation (Correct Answer)
- B. Mercy operation
- C. McDonald operation
- D. Purandare operation
Explanation: ***Fothergill operation*** - The **Fothergill operation**, also known as **Manchester repair**, is a traditional surgical procedure to correct **uterine prolapse** by shortening the cardinal ligaments and repairing the anterior and posterior vaginal walls. - It specifically addresses **cervical elongation** and uterine descent that can occur with prolapse. *Mercy operation* - There is **no widely recognized surgical procedure** in gynecology or general surgery known as the "Mercy operation." - This term does not correspond to a standard medical intervention for uterine prolapse or other conditions. *McDonald operation* - The **McDonald cerclage** is a common procedure for **cervical insufficiency** during pregnancy, where a stitch is placed around the cervix to prevent premature dilation. - It is **not used for uterine prolapse repair** as its purpose is to strengthen the cervix during pregnancy, not to support the uterus. *Purandare operation* - The **Purandare cervicopexy** is a type of **abdominal cerclage** used to treat **cervical incompetence**, particularly when a transvaginal approach is difficult or has failed. - While it involves the cervix, it is specifically for **cervical insufficiency in pregnancy** and not a procedure for correcting uterine prolapse.
Practice by Chapter
Pelvic Floor Anatomy and Function
Practice Questions
Urinary Incontinence: Classification
Practice Questions
Stress Urinary Incontinence
Practice Questions
Overactive Bladder and Urge Incontinence
Practice Questions
Pelvic Organ Prolapse: Classification
Practice Questions
Cystocele and Urethrocele
Practice Questions
Uterine Prolapse
Practice Questions
Rectocele and Enterocele
Practice Questions
Surgical Management in Urogynecology
Practice Questions
Conservative Management Approaches
Practice Questions
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