Reproductive Endocrinology — MCQs

Reproductive Endocrinology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 351: What does the cornification index indicate in the context of vaginal epithelium?

A. Progesterone effect
B. Estrogenic effect (Correct Answer)
C. Effect of LH
D. Effect of FSH

Explanation: ***Estrogenic effect*** - The **cornification index** measures the percentage of **superficial cornified squamous cells** in a vaginal smear. - These superficial cells undergo cornification specifically due to **estrogen stimulation**. - A **higher cornification index** indicates greater estrogenic activity on the vaginal epithelium. - This is a key cytological marker used to assess **estrogenic status** in clinical practice. *Progesterone effect* - Progesterone causes **intermediate and parabasal cells** to predominate, not superficial cornified cells. - It results in a **lower cornification index** with folded intermediate cells and increased cellular exfoliation. - The maturation index shifts leftward under progesterone influence. *Effect of LH* - **Luteinizing hormone (LH)** acts on the ovary to trigger ovulation and corpus luteum formation. - LH has **no direct effect** on vaginal epithelial cornification. - The cornification index reflects hormonal effects at the tissue level, not pituitary gonadotropins. *Effect of FSH* - **Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)** stimulates ovarian follicle development and estrogen synthesis. - While FSH promotes estrogen production indirectly, the cornification index specifically measures the **direct estrogenic effect** on vaginal cells, not FSH levels. - FSH itself does not cause epithelial cornification.

Question 352: What should be done next in an 18-year-old girl with primary amenorrhea, a karyotype of 45,X0, and an infantile uterus on ultrasound?

A. Vaginoplasty
B. Clitoroplasty
C. B/L gonadectomy
D. Hormone therapy to induce puberty (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Hormone therapy to induce puberty*** - The patient has **Turner syndrome (45,X0)**, which causes **gonadal dysgenesis** and thus a lack of **estrogen** and **progesterone** production, leading to primary amenorrhea and an infantile uterus. - **Hormone replacement therapy** with estrogen and progestin is essential to induce secondary sexual characteristics, promote uterine development, and achieve cyclical bleeding, which mimics puberty. *Vaginoplasty* - **Vaginoplasty** is a surgical procedure to create or lengthen the vagina, typically considered for conditions like **Mayer-Rokitansky-Küster-Hauser syndrome** where the vagina is absent or underdeveloped but ovaries are functional. - This patient has an infantile uterus, not vaginal agenesis as the primary issue, and the underlying problem is **hormonal deficiency**, not a structural one that would be addressed by vaginoplasty first. *Clitoroplasty* - **Clitoroplasty** is a surgical procedure to reduce the size of an enlarged clitoris, usually performed in cases of **ambiguous genitalia** or **congenital adrenal hyperplasia**. - There is no indication of clitoromegaly or ambiguous genitalia in this patient's presentation; her primary issue is the absence of puberty. *B/L gonadectomy* - **Bilateral gonadectomy** is indicated in patients with **Y chromosome material** and **gonadal dysgenesis** (e.g., Swyer syndrome or mixed gonadal dysgenesis) due to the high risk of **gonadoblastoma**. - While this patient has **gonadal dysgenesis** associated with **Turner syndrome**, she lacks a **Y chromosome**, meaning the risk of malignant transformation in her streak gonads is low, and therefore prophylactic gonadectomy is not typically performed.

Question 353: Post-pill amenorrhea is treated by:

A. Clonidine
B. Clomiphene (Correct Answer)
C. Progesterone
D. Estrogens

Explanation: ***Clomiphene*** - **Clomiphene citrate** is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that stimulates **gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)** release, leading to increased FSH and LH. - This effectively induces **ovulation** in women with an intact hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis, which is often the issue in post-pill amenorrhea. *Estrogens* - Administering **estrogens** alone would primarily suppress the hypothalamic-pituitary axis, which is already blunted in post-pill amenorrhea, rather than stimulating ovulation. - While estrogen is part of natural hormone replacement, it does not directly restore **ovarian function** or induce ovulation in this context. *Progesterone* - **Progesterone** is primarily used to induce a withdrawal bleed, confirming the presence of adequate estrogenization, but it does not induce **ovulation**. - It would not address the underlying ovulatory dysfunction characteristic of post-pill amenorrhea. *Clonidine* - **Clonidine** is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist typically used for **hypertension** or symptoms of menopause like hot flashes. - It has no role in the treatment of **amenorrhea** or in stimulating ovulation.

Question 354: A 21-year-old woman presents with complaints of primary amenorrhea. Her height is 153 cm, and her weight is 51 kg. She has well-developed breasts. She has no pubic or axillary hair and no hirsutism. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

A. Turner's syndrome
B. Stein-Leventhal syndrome
C. Premature ovarian failure
D. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome*** - This syndrome presents with **primary amenorrhea**, **well-developed breasts**, and **absent pubic/axillary hair** due to the inability of androgen receptors to respond to testosterone. - Patients are typically **genetically male** (XY) but phenotypically female, with undescended testes and a blind-ending vagina. *Turner's syndrome* - Characterized by **short stature**, a **webbed neck**, and **ovarian dysgenesis**, leading to absent breast development and amenorrhea. - Lacks the feature of well-developed breasts noted in the patient. *Stein-Leventhal syndrome* - Also known as **Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)**, this typically presents with secondary amenorrhea or oligomenorrhea, **hirsutism**, acne, and obesity. - The patient's lack of hirsutism and primary amenorrhea make PCOS less likely. *Premature ovarian failure* - Involves the **cessation of ovarian function before age 40**, leading to primary or secondary amenorrhea. - Patients typically present with symptoms of **estrogen deficiency**, including poor breast development, which contradicts the well-developed breasts in this case.

Question 355: What are the established thresholds for permanent sterility in women for prepubertal and premenopausal exposure to radiation?

A. 20 Gy and 6 Gy, respectively (Correct Answer)
B. 6 Gy and 2 Gy, respectively
C. 0.5 to 2 Gy and 20 Gy, respectively
D. 1 Gy and 0.2 Gy, respectively

Explanation: ***20 Gy and 6 Gy, respectively*** - The threshold for **permanent sterility** in prepubertal girls is approximately **20 Gy** or higher due to their larger follicular reserve and greater radioresistance of immature ovaries. - The threshold for **permanent sterility** in premenopausal women is significantly lower, around **6 Gy** (range 6-12 Gy, age-dependent), as their ovaries have fewer follicles and are more radiosensitive. - These thresholds represent single-dose or fractionated-equivalent exposures that result in complete and irreversible loss of ovarian function. *12 Gy and 2 Gy, respectively* - **12 Gy** is below the threshold for permanent sterility in prepubertal girls; it may cause temporary ovarian damage but usually not permanent sterility. - **2 Gy** typically causes temporary amenorrhea in premenopausal women but not permanent sterility; permanent damage requires higher doses (≥6 Gy). *0.5 to 2 Gy and 20 Gy, respectively* - The **0.5-2 Gy** range is far too low to cause permanent sterility in prepubertal girls; this range may cause temporary effects in adults. - While **20 Gy** is an appropriate threshold, it is incorrectly assigned to the premenopausal group rather than the prepubertal group; premenopausal women develop permanent sterility at much lower doses (6-12 Gy). *6 Gy and 2 Gy, respectively* - **6 Gy** is the lower threshold for premenopausal women, not prepubertal girls; prepubertal ovaries can tolerate much higher doses (≥20 Gy) before permanent sterility occurs. - **2 Gy** is insufficient to cause permanent sterility in premenopausal women; this dose typically causes only temporary amenorrhea.

Question 356: Which of the following ovarian tumors is associated with precocious puberty in young girls?

A. Immature teratoma
B. Granulosa cell tumor (Correct Answer)
C. Dysgerminoma
D. Krukenberg tumor

Explanation: ***Granulosa cell tumor*** - These tumors are **sex cord-stromal tumors** that can produce **estrogen**, leading to signs of precocious puberty in young girls, such as breast development and vaginal bleeding. - The excess estrogen can stimulate the development of **secondary sexual characteristics** prematurely. *Immature teratoma* - Immature teratomas are **germ cell tumors** consisting of immature embryonic tissues; while they can occur in children, they are not typically hormonally active or associated with precocious puberty. - They are more commonly associated with symptoms related to their **mass effect** or rupture. *Dysgerminoma* - Dysgerminomas are also **germ cell tumors** but are generally **non-hormonal** and do not typically cause precocious puberty. - They tend to be large and are generally associated with elevated **lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)**. *Krukenberg tumor* - A Krukenberg tumor is a **metastatic signet ring cell adenocarcinoma** to the ovary, usually from a gastric primary. - These tumors are not primary ovarian tumors and do not typically produce hormones that cause precocious puberty.

Question 357: Which of the following does not cause female pseudohermaphroditism?

A. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
B. Leydig cell tumor
C. Hilus cell tumor
D. Theca cell tumor (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Theca cell tumor*** - Theca cell tumors (thecomas) are typically **estrogen-producing tumors** and do not cause virilization or female pseudohermaphroditism. - They are more commonly associated with symptoms related to **estrogen excess**, such as abnormal uterine bleeding or endometrial hyperplasia. *Hilus cell tumor* - Hilus cell tumors are **androgen-producing tumors** of the ovary (containing Leydig cells) that secrete **testosterone and other androgens**, leading to virilization. - This can cause **female pseudohermaphroditism** (external virilization of a 46,XX individual) if occurring prenatally or post-natal virilization in adulthood. *Congenital adrenal hyperplasia* - **Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)**, particularly 21-hydroxylase deficiency, is the **most common cause** of female pseudohermaphroditism due to **excess adrenal androgen production** during fetal development. - Increased androgens lead to **virilization of external genitalia** in 46,XX fetuses. *Leydig cell tumor* - Ovarian Leydig cell tumors are extremely rare androgen-producing tumors. The more common androgen-producing ovarian tumor is the **Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor** (androblastoma). - **Sertoli-Leydig cell tumors** are sex cord-stromal tumors that produce **androgens**, causing **virilization** in affected individuals, which can lead to masculinization and ambiguous genitalia.

Question 358: In a clinical scenario where a patient does not experience withdrawal bleeding after the administration of estrogen followed by progestin, what does this indicate?

A. Uterine factor (Correct Answer)
B. Ovarian factors
C. Pituitary factor
D. Hypothalamic factor

Explanation: ***Uterine factor*** - Withdrawal bleeding after estrogen-progestin administration indicates a responsive **endometrium** with adequate estrogen priming and ability to respond to progesterone. The absence of bleeding suggests an issue with the uterus itself, indicating a **uterine factor**. - A persistent lack of response to this hormonal challenge points towards a physical or anatomical problem within the uterus, such as **Asherman's syndrome** (intrauterine adhesions) or severe endometrial damage/absence. - This test helps differentiate between **outflow tract abnormalities** and hormonal causes of amenorrhea. *Ovarian factors* - Ovarian factors primarily affect **estrogen production** and would be addressed by the exogenous estrogen administration, meaning they wouldn't prevent withdrawal bleeding if the uterus is healthy. - In cases of ovarian dysfunction (e.g., polycystic ovary syndrome, premature ovarian insufficiency), withdrawal bleeding would typically occur after exogenous estrogen and progestin administration. *Pituitary factor* - Pituitary problems lead to insufficient **gonadotropin** (FSH/LH) production, impacting ovarian steroidogenesis, which is bypassed by direct estrogen-progestin administration. - If the pituitary is the cause of amenorrhea, exogenous estrogen-progestin would still elicit withdrawal bleeding provided the uterus is responsive. *Hypothalamic factor* - Hypothalamic issues result in inadequate **GnRH** pulsatility, affecting pituitary and subsequently ovarian function, but are circumvented by direct estrogen-progestin administration. - A healthy uterus would respond to the administered hormones by displaying withdrawal bleeding, regardless of hypothalamic dysfunction.

Question 359: What is the management for women with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) and hirsutism?

A. Ethinyl estradiol + Cyproterone Acetate (Correct Answer)
B. Ethinyl estradiol
C. Levonorgestrel
D. Ethinyl estradiol + Levonorgestrel

Explanation: ***Ethinyl estradiol + Cyproterone Acetate*** - This combination is effective for managing **hirsutism** in PCOS because ethinyl estradiol suppresses **gonadotropins** and ovarian androgen production, while **cyproterone acetate** is a potent **anti-androgen** that blocks androgen effects at the receptor level. - The anti-androgenic properties of cyproterone acetate directly address the excess androgen activity responsible for hirsutism. *Ethinyl estradiol* - While ethinyl estradiol (an estrogen) can suppress **gonadotropins** and thus reduce ovarian androgen production, it alone is not primarily effective in directly addressing and reversing existing hirsutism. - It would not sufficiently counteract the effects of high androgens on hair follicles without an additional anti-androgen. *Levonorgestrel* - Levonorgestrel is a **progestin** with **androgenic properties**, particularly at higher doses. - This would potentially worsen hirsutism rather than improve it, as it contributes to androgenic effects. *Ethinyl estradiol + Levonorgestrel* - This combination is a common component of oral contraceptive pills, but **levonorgestrel** has some **androgenic activity**, which means it could worsen or fail to improve hirsutism. - While ethinyl estradiol lowers androgens, the mild androgenic effect of levonorgestrel might counteract the desired anti-androgenic effect needed to treat hirsutism effectively.

Question 360: A 27-year-old female was prescribed bromocriptine for treatment of infertility in the outpatient department. What could be the possible reason?

A. Hyperprolactinemia (Correct Answer)
B. PID
C. Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)
D. Hypogonadotropic Hypogonadism

Explanation: ***Hyperprolactinemia*** - **Bromocriptine** is a **dopamine agonist** that suppresses prolactin secretion, making it a primary treatment for **hyperprolactinemia**. - Elevated prolactin levels can disrupt normal ovarian function, leading to **anovulation** and **infertility**. *Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)* - While PCOS is a common cause of infertility, its primary treatment involves **lifestyle modifications**, **clomiphene citrate**, or **metformin**, not bromocriptine. - PCOS is characterized by **androgen excess**, **anovulation**, and **polycystic ovaries**, which are not directly addressed by bromocriptine. *Hypogonadotropic Hypogonadism* - This condition involves low levels of **gonadotropins** (LH, FSH) from the pituitary, requiring treatment with **gonadotropin therapy** (e.g., exogenous FSH/LH) to induce ovulation. - Bromocriptine would not be effective as the primary issue is insufficient pituitary stimulation, not excess prolactin. *PID* - **Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)** causes infertility by damaging the fallopian tubes, often requiring **antibiotics** to treat the infection and sometimes surgical intervention for adhesions. - Bromocriptine has no role in treating infections or tubal damage caused by PID.

Practice by Chapter

Hypothalamic-Pituitary-Ovarian Axis

Practice Questions

Disorders of Puberty

Practice Questions

Hirsutism and Virilization

Practice Questions

Primary Ovarian Insufficiency

Practice Questions

Hyperprolactinemia

Practice Questions

Hyperandrogenism

Practice Questions

Metabolic Dysfunction in PCOS

Practice Questions

Neuroendocrine Disorders and Reproduction

Practice Questions

Hormonal Evaluation and Testing

Practice Questions

Ovulation Induction

Practice Questions

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