Postpartum Care — MCQs
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Which one of the following statements is NOT true regarding general physiological changes after delivery?
Which of following statements regarding Puerperal sepsis are correct? 1. Multiple per vaginal examinations increase the risk 2. Group A and B beta-haemolytic Streptococcus are among the responsible microorganisms 3. Retained bits of placenta and membrane predispose 4. Vaginal packing can decrease the risk Select the correct answer using the code given below:
In non-lactating mothers, after delivery, ovulation
The causes for subinvolution of uterus are the following except:
Predisposing factors of puerperal sepsis are following except:
A woman who is not breast feeding her newborn child is advised to use a contraceptive method by:
What is the correct order of ligation for devascularization in the management of Postpartum Hemorrhage (PPH)?
Rate of uterine involution per day following delivery:
A 34-year-old lady with 4 children, after her 5th normal vaginal delivery, experiences excessive bleeding after the placenta is removed. What is the cause for this?
Genital prolapse is best repaired after how many months postpartum?
Postpartum Care Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 171: Which one of the following statements is NOT true regarding general physiological changes after delivery?
- A. Blood volume returns to normal by second week
- B. Pulse may be raised on first day
- C. Temperature should not be above 99°F
- D. Cardiac output remains unchanged after delivery (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Cardiac output remains unchanged after delivery*** - This statement is incorrect because **cardiac output** actually undergoes significant changes postpartum. It **increases immediately after delivery** due to autotransfusion from the now-empty uterus and removal of uteroplacental shunt, peaking within the first hours, before gradually declining to pre-pregnancy levels over several weeks. - The drop in cardiac output after delivery is not immediate or complete, with initial increases followed by a gradual decrease, which refutes the idea of it remaining unchanged. *Blood volume returns to normal by second week* - This statement is generally true; after an initial increase immediately postpartum due to the relief of vena caval compression and autotransfusion, **blood volume progressively decreases** and typically returns to pre-pregnancy levels within the **first few weeks** following delivery. - The excess plasma volume accumulated during pregnancy is lost through diuresis and diaphoresis, bringing total blood volume back to normal. *Pulse may be raised on first day* - This statement is also true; many women experience a **transient increase in heart rate (tachycardia)** during the first 24-48 hours postpartum. - This can be attributed to several factors including **pain**, excitement, **blood loss**, and the rapid physiological changes occurring as the body adjusts after delivery. *Temperature should not be above 99°F* - This statement is largely true, as a **postpartum temperature** above 100.4°F (38°C) on two successive occasions and remaining elevated for more than 24 hours is typically considered a sign of **puerperal fever** and warrants investigation. - A transient rise to 100.4°F (38°C) within the first 24 hours can occur due to **dehydration** or the stress of labor, but sustained elevation above 99°F without a clear explanation should prompt further assessment for infection.
Question 172: Which of following statements regarding Puerperal sepsis are correct? 1. Multiple per vaginal examinations increase the risk 2. Group A and B beta-haemolytic Streptococcus are among the responsible microorganisms 3. Retained bits of placenta and membrane predispose 4. Vaginal packing can decrease the risk Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A. 1, 3 and 4
- B. 1, 2 and 3 (Correct Answer)
- C. 2, 3 and 4
- D. 1, 2 and 4
Explanation: ***1, 2 and 3*** - **Multiple per vaginal examinations** introduce exogenous bacteria from the perineum into the sterile uterine cavity, increasing the risk of infection. - **Group A and B beta-haemolytic Streptococcus** are common causative organisms, especially Group A, which can cause severe, rapidly progressive puerperal sepsis. - **Retained products of conception** (placental or membrane fragments) provide a nidus for bacterial growth and interfere with uterine involution, creating a favorable environment for infection. *1, 3 and 4* - This option incorrectly includes "Vaginal packing can decrease the risk" and excludes a correct statement. - While multiple vaginal examinations and retained tissue increase risk, **vaginal packing** can actually increase the risk of infection by creating an anaerobic environment and trapping bacteria. *2, 3 and 4* - This option incorrectly includes "Vaginal packing can decrease the risk" and excludes a correct statement. - The identified microorganisms and role of retained products are correct, but vaginal packing is not a preventive measure for puerperal sepsis. *1, 2 and 4* - This option incorrectly includes "Vaginal packing can decrease the risk" and excludes a correct statement. - While multiple vaginal examinations and specific streptococcal species are correctly identified as risk factors or causes, vaginal packing is not a beneficial intervention.
Question 173: In non-lactating mothers, after delivery, ovulation
- A. may occur as early as 4 weeks
- B. may occur as early as 2 weeks (Correct Answer)
- C. is unusual before 6 weeks
- D. may occur as early as 6 weeks
Explanation: ***may occur as early as 2 weeks*** - In non-lactating mothers, the **hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis** recovers relatively quickly after delivery because it is not suppressed by prolactin. - The earliest documented return of ovulation can be as soon as **2 weeks postpartum**, although 4-6 weeks is more common. *may occur as early as 4 weeks* - While 4 weeks is a common timeframe for ovulation to resume in non-lactating mothers, it is not the **earliest possible occurrence**. - This option misses the possibility of an even earlier return of **fertility**. *is unusual before 6 weeks* - This statement is incorrect as ovulation can, and frequently does, occur **before 6 weeks postpartum** in non-lactating women. - Delaying ovulation until 6 weeks is more typical in breast-feeding women due to **prolactin's inhibitory effect** on gonadotropin-releasing hormone. *may occur as early as 6 weeks* - Similar to the 4-week option, while ovulation can occur at 6 weeks, it is not the **earliest possible time point** for a non-lactating mother. - Assuming 6 weeks as the earliest timeframe could lead to an underestimation of the **risk of conception**.
Question 174: The causes for subinvolution of uterus are the following except:
- A. Retained placental fragments
- B. Multiple pregnancy
- C. Established breast feeding (Correct Answer)
- D. Pelvic infection
Explanation: ***Established breast feeding*** - **Breastfeeding** promotes the release of **oxytocin**, which aids in uterine contractions and thus helps the uterus return to its pre-pregnancy size and state, preventing subinvolution. - Therefore, it is a protective factor against subinvolution, not a cause. *Retained placental fragments* - **Retained placental tissue** prevents the uterus from contracting effectively, leading to continued bleeding and an enlarged, soft uterus. - This physical obstruction interferes with the normal process of **involution**. *Multiple pregnancy* - A uterus stretched significantly by a **multiple pregnancy** (e.g., twins or triplets) may have difficulty contracting efficiently after birth. - The increased uterine size and distension can impair the myometrial fibers' ability to involute properly. *Pelvic infection* - **Infection** within the uterus (e.g., **endometritis**) can interfere with uterine contractions and tissue repair. - The inflammatory process can delay or prevent the normal physiological reduction in uterine size, contributing to subinvolution.
Question 175: Predisposing factors of puerperal sepsis are following except:
- A. Multiparity (Correct Answer)
- B. Placenta previa
- C. Cases of manual removal of placenta
- D. Repeated internal examinations specially in the case of premature rupture of membrane
Explanation: ***Multiparity*** - **Multiparity**, defined as having given birth to more than one child, is generally considered a protective factor rather than a predisposing factor for puerperal sepsis. - While it was historically associated with some obstetric complications, modern evidence does not support it as a direct risk factor for puerperal sepsis. *Placenta previa* - **Placenta previa** increases the risk of hemorrhage and the need for interventions such as manual removal of the placenta or cesarean section, all of which elevate the risk of infection. - The abnormal placental implantation itself can lead to a more traumatic delivery and exposure to infection. *Cases of manual removal of placenta* - **Manual removal of the placenta** involves direct digital exploration of the uterine cavity, which introduces bacteria into a potentially sterile environment. - This procedure also causes trauma to the uterine lining, creating an entry point for infection. *Repeated internal examinations specially in the case of premature rupture of membrane* - **Repeated internal examinations**, especially after **premature rupture of membranes (PROM)**, repeatedly introduce microorganisms from the vagina into the sterile uterine cavity. - PROM itself removes the protective barrier against ascending infection, making frequent examinations particularly risky.
Question 176: A woman who is not breast feeding her newborn child is advised to use a contraceptive method by:
- A. 3rd postpartum month
- B. 3rd postpartum week
- C. 6th postpartum month
- D. 6th postpartum week (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***6th postpartum week*** - For non-breastfeeding women, the **uterus typically involutes** by 6 weeks, and ovulatory cycles can resume as early as 4-6 weeks postpartum. - Due to the rapid return to fertility and the completion of immediate postpartum healing, contraceptive methods are generally recommended around the **6-week postpartum check-up**. *3rd postpartum month* - This is generally considered **too late** for initiating contraception in non-breastfeeding women as fertility can return much earlier. - Waiting until 3 months significantly increases the risk of **unintended pregnancy** because ovulation often occurs before the first postpartum menses. *3rd postpartum week* - While some women may ovulate early, it's generally **too soon** to initiate most contraceptive methods due to ongoing uterine involution and the risk of postpartum complications. - The risk of **thrombosis** is still elevated in the immediate postpartum period, making certain hormonal contraceptives (e.g., estrogen-containing methods) contraindicated. *6th postpartum month* - Similar to the 3rd postpartum month, this is generally **too late** to initiate contraception for non-breastfeeding women. - Prolonged delay significantly increases the likelihood of **unintended conception** during this period.
Question 177: What is the correct order of ligation for devascularization in the management of Postpartum Hemorrhage (PPH)?
- A. Uterine artery, internal iliac, obturator artery
- B. Uterine artery, pudendal artery, vaginal artery
- C. Uterine artery, ovarian artery, vaginal artery
- D. Uterine artery, ovarian artery, internal iliac artery (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Uterine artery, ovarian artery, internal iliac artery*** - Ligation of the **uterine artery** is typically the first step due to its primary role in supplying the uterus. It often resolves PPH. - If PPH persists, the next step is typically bilateral ligation of the **ovarian arteries**, followed by the **internal iliac arteries (hypogastric arteries)**. This sequence progressively reduces blood flow to the uterus while preserving collateral circulation as much as possible. *Uterine artery, internal iliac, obturator artery* - While initial ligation of the **uterine artery** is correct, the **obturator artery** is not a primary target for devascularization in PPH management. - The obturator artery mainly supplies the thigh and pelvic floor, and its ligation would not significantly impact uterine blood flow in the context of PPH. *Uterine artery, pudendal artery, vaginal artery* - **Uterine artery** ligation is appropriate, but the **pudendal artery** is not typically ligated for PPH; it supplies the perineum and external genitalia. - While the **vaginal artery** supplies part of the lower uterus and vagina, it is usually addressed after or in conjunction with the hypogastric arteries if uterine and ovarian vessel ligation is insufficient, and not before ovarian arteries. *Uterine artery, ovarian artery, vaginal artery* - Ligation of the **uterine artery** and **ovarian artery** is correct in sequence, but the **vaginal artery** alone is usually insufficient. - The next major supply to be considered if bleeding persists after uterine and ovarian ligation would be the **internal iliac artery** to address collateral supply from other branches, not just the vaginal artery in isolation.
Question 178: Rate of uterine involution per day following delivery:
- A. 2.5 cm/day
- B. 1.25 cm/day
- C. 1 cm/day (Correct Answer)
- D. 2.25 cm/day
Explanation: ***1 cm/day*** - Following delivery, the uterus typically descends into the pelvis at a rate of **1 cm (or 1 finger breadth) per day**. - This process of **uterine involution** allows the fundus to return to its pre-pregnancy size and location within approximately **6 weeks**. *2.5 cm/day* - This rate of uterine involution is **too rapid** and not consistent with the normal physiological process. - A uterus undergoing such rapid changes might suggest an underlying complication, but it's not the typical rate. *1.25 cm/day* - While closer to the correct rate, **1.25 cm/day** is still slightly faster than the average expected rate of uterine involution. - The standard measurement used in clinical practice and textbooks is generally **1 cm/day**. *2.25 cm/day* - This rate is also **significantly faster** than the normal physiological process of uterine involution. - Such an accelerated rate would not be expected in a healthy postpartum woman.
Question 179: A 34-year-old lady with 4 children, after her 5th normal vaginal delivery, experiences excessive bleeding after the placenta is removed. What is the cause for this?
- A. Uterine atony (Correct Answer)
- B. Genital tract trauma
- C. Retained placental tissue
- D. Coagulation disorders
Explanation: ***Uterine atony*** - The most common cause of **postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)**, accounting for 70-80% of cases - **Multiparity** (Grand multipara with 5 deliveries) is a major risk factor, as repeated pregnancies lead to **overdistension and decreased uterine muscle tone** - Uterine atony is the failure of the myometrium to contract adequately after placental delivery, preventing compression of spiral arteries - Part of the **"4 Ts" mnemonic** for PPH causes: **Tone** (atony), Trauma, Tissue, Thrombin *Genital tract trauma* - Second most common cause of PPH (approximately 20% of cases) - Includes cervical lacerations, vaginal tears, or perineal trauma - However, the question specifically mentions **"normal vaginal delivery"** and bleeding **"after placenta removal"**, making trauma less likely - Trauma-related bleeding typically occurs **during or immediately after delivery**, not specifically post-placental *Retained placental tissue* - Accounts for approximately 10% of PPH cases - The question states the placenta **"is removed"**, suggesting complete placental delivery - If placental fragments were retained, bleeding would persist due to inability of the uterus to contract fully - Less likely given the clinical scenario described *Coagulation disorders* - Least common cause of primary PPH (1-2% of cases) - Includes conditions like **DIC, thrombocytopenia, or inherited coagulopathies** - No clinical history suggesting coagulopathy (e.g., no bleeding during pregnancy, no family history) - Would typically present with **oozing from multiple sites**, not just uterine bleeding
Question 180: Genital prolapse is best repaired after how many months postpartum?
- A. 2 months
- B. 3 months
- C. 1 month
- D. 6 months (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***6 months*** - It is recommended to delay surgical repair of genital prolapse until **6 months postpartum** to allow for complete **involution of the uterus**, resolution of edema, and optimal healing of pelvic floor tissues. - Delaying surgery allows the **pelvic floor muscles and ligaments** to regain their pre-pregnancy tone and strength, leading to a more accurate assessment of the prolapse severity and better surgical outcomes. *2 months* - This period is generally too early as the **pelvic tissues** are still undergoing significant postpartum changes, including **uterine involution** and resolution of edema. - Performing surgery at this stage may lead to suboptimal results due to ongoing anatomical and physiological changes. *3 months* - While some tissue recovery has occurred, 3 months postpartum is still considered early for definitive prolapse repair as **pelvic floor support structures** may not have fully recuperated. - Waiting longer provides a more stable anatomical environment for surgical intervention. *1 month* - This is far too early for surgical repair, as the body is still in the active phase of **postpartum recovery**, with significant tissue edema and incomplete uterine involution. - Surgery at this time would be premature and increase the risk of complications.
Practice by Chapter
Normal Puerperium
Practice Questions
Lactation and Breastfeeding
Practice Questions
Postpartum Complications
Practice Questions
Postpartum Depression and Psychiatric Disorders
Practice Questions
Contraception After Delivery
Practice Questions
Postpartum Infections
Practice Questions
Secondary Postpartum Hemorrhage
Practice Questions
Recovery After Cesarean Delivery
Practice Questions
Postpartum Exercise and Rehabilitation
Practice Questions
Follow-up and Future Pregnancy Planning
Practice Questions
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