Postpartum Care — MCQs

Postpartum Care Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 141: After delivery, a 28-year-old woman with pre-eclampsia presents with a soft uterus and moderate-to-heavy bleeding. There are no lacerations, and postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) is diagnosed due to uterine atony. What is the best management option for this condition?

A. 0.2-mg intramuscular (IM) ergonovine (Methergine)
B. 20 units of IV oxytocin (Correct Answer)
C. 10 units of oral oxytocin
D. 250 mg prostaglandin F2-alpha orally

Explanation: **Explanation:** The clinical presentation of a soft uterus and heavy bleeding postpartum confirms **Uterine Atony**, which is the most common cause of Postpartum Hemorrhage (PPH). **1. Why Option B is Correct:** **Oxytocin (20 units IV)** is the first-line drug of choice for both the prevention and treatment of atonic PPH. It acts on the G-protein coupled receptors in the myometrium to cause rhythmic uterine contractions. It is preferred because of its rapid onset of action (within minutes) and minimal side-effect profile compared to other uterotonics. **2. Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Option A (Ergonovine/Methergine):** While an effective uterotonic, it is **absolutely contraindicated** in patients with pre-eclampsia or hypertension. Ergonovine causes peripheral vasoconstriction, which can lead to a hypertensive crisis, stroke, or myocardial infarction in these patients. * **Option C (Oral Oxytocin):** Oxytocin is a peptide hormone that is degraded by gastric enzymes; therefore, it is not effective when administered orally. * **Option D (PGF2-alpha):** Carboprost (PGF2-alpha) is used for refractory PPH, but the standard dose is **250 mcg (0.25 mg) intramuscularly**, not 250 mg orally. Furthermore, it is a second-line agent, not the initial management. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **First-line management of Atonic PPH:** Uterine massage + IV Oxytocin. * **Contraindications to remember:** * **Methergine:** Avoid in Hypertension/Pre-eclampsia. * **PGF2-alpha (Carboprost):** Avoid in Asthma. * **PGE1 (Misoprostol):** Can be used rectally/sublingually if IV access is unavailable. * **Maximum Dose of Oxytocin:** Usually 40-60 units in 1 liter of crystalloid. Avoid rapid IV bolus as it can cause sudden hypotension and water intoxication (due to its ADH-like effect).

Question 142: Identify the medical device shown in the image.

A. Balloon Tamponade (Correct Answer)
B. Umbrella pack
C. Parachute pack
D. Cervical ablation

Explanation: ***Balloon Tamponade*** - The image displays an intrauterine balloon, like a **Bakri balloon**, which is inflated within the uterine cavity to exert pressure on the bleeding surfaces of the endometrium. - This procedure, known as balloon tamponade, is a common and effective intervention for managing refractory **postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)**, particularly when caused by uterine atony. *Umbrella pack* - An umbrella pack is a method of uterine packing that uses gauze arranged in an "umbrella" fashion to apply pressure, rather than an inflatable balloon. - This technique is now less commonly used due to the availability of more effective and safer methods like balloon tamponade, and it carries a risk of **concealed hemorrhage**. *Parachute pack* - A parachute pack is another older gauze-packing technique used for uterine hemorrhage, distinct from the balloon device shown. - It has been largely superseded by modern interventions such as **uterine artery embolization** and balloon tamponade due to better outcomes and lower complication rates. *Cervical ablation* - Cervical ablation is a procedure to destroy abnormal tissue on the cervix, typically for treating **cervical dysplasia**, and does not involve an intrauterine balloon. - The image shows a device for hemorrhage control within the uterus, not a therapeutic procedure on the cervix itself.

Question 143: A 30-year-old female who delivered a healthy term baby one week ago is now presenting to the OBG clinic with complaints of fishy-smelling pale brownish vaginal discharge. What is the nature of this discharge?

A. Leukorrhea
B. Lochia Serosa (Correct Answer)
C. Lochia Rubra
D. Lochia Alba

Explanation: ***Lochia Serosa***- This stage of postpartum discharge typically begins around **day 4** and lasts until **day 10** postpartum, aligning perfectly with the patient’s presentation at one week (7 days) after delivery.- It is characterized by a **pale brownish** or pinkish, watery discharge, consisting of old blood, serum, and leukocytes. The described "fishy smell" likely results from bacterial colonization, common in this stage, but the timing dictates the stage.*Lochia Rubra*- This is the initial, heavy stage of lochia, which occurs during the first **1 to 3 days** postpartum.- The discharge is predominantly **bright red** and bloody, containing large amounts of decidua and tissue fragments, not pale brownish.*Lochia Alba*- This is the final stage of lochia, usually beginning after **day 10** (or even two weeks) and may persist for several weeks.- It is typically **creamy, white, or yellowish** in color, containing predominantly leukocytes, epithelial cells, and mucus.*Leukorrhea*- This is a broad term for **non-bloody vaginal discharge** related to normal physiological changes (like ovulation) or pathological conditions (like vaginitis).- While lochia contains many components of leukorrhea (white cells), **lochia** is the specific and correct term for the expected postpartum discharge composed of blood, serum, and tissue.

Question 144: A woman, a few weeks after delivery, complains of bloody discharge from nipple and fever. On examination, diffuse lump under areola. What is the diagnosis?

A. Fibrocystic disease
B. Galactocele
C. Lactational mastitis (Correct Answer)
D. Mondor disease

Explanation: ***Lactational mastitis***- This condition is common during the **puerperium** (a few weeks after delivery) and is typically caused by retrograde infection (usually *Staphylococcus aureus*) entering through damaged nipples.- The classic presentation includes **fever**, warmth, pain, and a painful, diffuse, indurated area in the breast (the lump). **Bloody discharge** can occur due to severe inflammation or coexisting bleeding/damage related to the infection.*Galactocele*- This is a retention cyst resulting from an *obstructed lactiferous duct*, characterized by a firm, discrete, and movable lump.- It is usually **painless** and **afebrile**, and the discharge, if present, is typically milky or oily, not bloody and associated with fever.*Mondor disease*- This is a rare, benign condition, involving **thrombophlebitis of the superficial veins** of the breast or chest wall.- It presents as a palpable, painful, **cord-like structure** but is not associated with fever, systemic symptoms, or nipple discharge.*Fibrocystic disease*- This is a benign condition characterized by **lumpiness** and often cyclical pain, typically *before* menstruation.- It does not present acutely post-delivery with fever and bloody discharge, and it lacks the acute inflammatory signs characteristic of infection.

Question 145: A woman with forceps delivery 24 hours ago presents with pain in the perineum. Her BP is 80/60 and on examination, there is a swelling with bluish discolouration. Which of the following steps are advised not to do?

A. Repair the wound in the ward (Correct Answer)
B. Inform senior about her
C. Shift patient to OT
D. Give Blood Transfusion

Explanation: ***Repair the wound in the ward*** - This patient has a **perineal hematoma** with hemodynamic instability (BP 80/60 mmHg indicating hypovolemic shock) - Surgical evacuation of hematoma requires **proper anesthesia, adequate lighting, sterile conditions, and availability of resuscitation equipment** - all available in OT, not in ward - Ward-based repair would be inadequate and dangerous in an unstable patient - **Standard protocol:** Hemodynamically unstable obstetric emergencies require OT management *Inform senior about her* - This SHOULD be done immediately - Perineal hematoma with shock is a **medical emergency requiring senior consultation** - Essential for proper decision-making and management *Shift patient to OT* - This SHOULD be done as part of proper management - **Surgical evacuation of hematoma** under anesthesia is required - OT provides controlled environment for managing complications *Give Blood Transfusion* - This SHOULD be done urgently - BP 80/60 indicates **hypovolemic shock** from concealed bleeding in hematoma - **Resuscitation with blood products** is essential before and during surgical management - Cross-matched blood should be arranged immediately

Question 146: Which of the following is the correct definition of postpartum pyrexia?

A. After 6 hours, temperature > 100.4 degrees Fahrenheit
B. After 24 hours, temperature > 100.4 degrees Fahrenheit (Correct Answer)
C. After 3 hours, temperature > 100.4 degrees Fahrenheit
D. After 12 hours, temperature > 100.4 degrees Fahrenheit

Explanation: ***After 24 hours, temperature > 100.4 degrees Fahrenheit***- The standard definition of **postpartum pyrexia** (puerperal fever) requires a temperature of **100.4°F (38.0°C)** or higher, recorded on any two of the first 10 postpartum days.- Importantly, this definition **excludes the first 24 hours** post-delivery, as transient fever during this period is common and often non-infectious (**dehydration** or **trauma**).*After 6 hours, temperature > 100.4 degrees Fahrenheit*- This time threshold is too early; transient, often benign, fever spikes are common in the immediate six hours following delivery due to physiological changes or **epidural use**.- Using this timeframe would lead to over-diagnosis of **puerperal morbidity** or infection.*After 3 hours, temperature > 100.4 degrees Fahrenheit*- Fever occurring this early is usually reflective of labor-related issues like **chorioamnionitis** present before delivery or non-infectious causes related to the immediate **postpartum stress**.- The standard definition purposefully excludes the initial period to distinguish between immediate physiological responses and actual **puerperal infection**.*After 12 hours, temperature > 100.4 degrees Fahrenheit*- While closer to the standard definition, 12 hours is still too soon, as the standard clinical parameter for defining significant infection requires symptoms to persist starting **after the first 24 hours**.- This window still often includes temporary fevers that resolve spontaneously and are not indicative of true **postpartum infection**.

Question 147: What is the level of the uterus immediately after delivery?

A. Above pubic symphysis
B. Below the umbilicus (Correct Answer)
C. Below pubic symphysis
D. Above umbilicus

Explanation: ***Below the umbilicus*** Immediately after delivery, the uterus undergoes rapid contraction and the fundus is typically palpable **at or slightly below the level of the umbilicus**. This is due to myometrial contraction following placental separation. Within the first 12-24 hours postpartum, the fundus remains at approximately the umbilical level before beginning involution at approximately 1 cm per day. *Incorrect: Above pubic symphysis* This is too low for the immediate postpartum period. The uterus reaches this level only after several weeks of involution (around 2 weeks postpartum). *Incorrect: Below pubic symphysis* The uterus is palpable below the pubic symphysis only by 6 weeks postpartum when involution is complete and it has returned to its non-pregnant size. *Incorrect: Above umbilicus* The fundus is not palpable above the umbilicus immediately after delivery. A fundus above the umbilicus in the immediate postpartum period suggests uterine atony or retained products.

Question 148: A 28-year-old mother presents with pain in her left breast. Which of the following is the most likely cause of acute mastitis?

A. Crack in the nipple (Correct Answer)
B. Absence of lactation
C. Breast engorgement
D. Hormonal influence

Explanation: ***Crack in the nipple***- This provides a direct portal of entry for bacteria, usually **Staphylococcus aureus**, which are commonly found on the skin or transported from the infant's nasopharynx.- Infective mastitis, characterized by **pain**, **erythema**, and fever, typically follows bacterial invasion through damaged *nipple epithelium*.*Breast engorgement*- This is a non-infectious condition caused by **milk stasis** and increased vascularity, typically occurring early in lactation.- While severe engorgement and incomplete emptying can *predispose* to mastitis by causing ductal blockage, it is not the primary mechanism or the *most likely cause* of the subsequent bacterial infection.*Hormonal influence*- Hormones, primarily **prolactin** and **oxytocin**, regulate milk production and let-down; they do not cause acute bacterial infection.- Changes in estrogen and progesterone levels are associated with breast tenderness (mastalgia) but are not directly causative factors for infective mastitis.*Absence of lactation*- Acute infective mastitis is overwhelmingly a complication of **lactation** (puerperal mastitis) due to milk stasis and nipple trauma.- The absence of lactation drastically *decreases* the typical risk factors for infective mastitis in this demographic (milk stasis, nipple damage from feeding).

Question 149: A primigravida delivers a healthy baby via normal delivery. After how many hours should she initiate breastfeeding?

A. After 24 hours
B. After 4-6 hours
C. Within 1 hour (Correct Answer)
D. After 1 hour

Explanation: ***Within 1 hour***- The World Health Organization (WHO) and UNICEF strongly recommend initiating breastfeeding within the **first hour** of birth, often termed **early initiation**.- This practice stimulates early **suckling reflexes**, encourages bonding, and ensures the baby receives **colostrum**, which is rich in antibodies.*After 1 hour*- While better than waiting several hours, delaying beyond the first hour can miss the infant's period of **quiet alertness** immediately post-delivery, when they are most receptive to suckling.- The first hour is critical for the establishment of a successful maternal-infant bond and **optimal milk production signaling**.*After 4-6 hours*- Delaying breastfeeding significantly reduces the likelihood of successful **exclusive breastfeeding** later on, as the infant may become sleepy or less keen to latch.- Waiting this long deprives the newborn of the crucial **colostrum** and its protective immunological and nutritional benefits during a vulnerable period.*After 24 hours*- This is considered a significant and unnecessary delay, which greatly increases the risk of **neonatal hypothermia, hypoglycemia**, and poor feeding outcomes.- It is strictly against standard guidelines and often necessitates artificial formula supplementation, undermining the goal of achieving **exclusive breastfeeding**.

Question 150: A 28-year-old primigravida woman with a history of preeclampsia undergoes a cesarean section at term. Her BMI is 37. She is currently stable in the postnatal ward. Which of the following is the most appropriate prophylaxis to prevent thrombosis for this patient?

A. Aspirin
B. LMWH (Correct Answer)
C. Clopidogrel
D. Warfarin

Explanation: ***LMWH*** - **Low Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWH)** is the preferred agent for postpartum VTE prophylaxis in high-risk patients due to its predictable therapeutic response and ease of administration without frequent monitoring. - This patient has multiple VTE risk factors: **Cesarean section**, **BMI > 30 (37)**, and history of **preeclampsia**, mandating pharmacological thromboprophylaxis immediately postpartum (often for 10-14 days). *Warfarin* - **Warfarin**, a Vitamin K antagonist, is generally not the first-line agent for acute postpartum prophylaxis because it requires intensive monitoring via **INR (International Normalized Ratio)** testing. - It has a slower onset of action and is less preferred for short-term prophylaxis compared to the rapid effect of LMWH. *Clopidogrel* - **Clopidogrel** is an **antiplatelet agent** primarily used to prevent arterial thrombosis (e.g., stroke, myocardial infarction) and is ineffective as monotherapy for preventing venous thromboembolism (VTE). - Its mechanism involves irreversible inhibition of the **P2Y12 receptor**, targeting platelet aggregation rather than the coagulation cascade. *Aspirin* - **Aspirin** (low-dose) is an antiplatelet agent primarily used in pregnancy to reduce the risk of preeclampsia recurrence, but it is insufficient for robust VTE prophylaxis post-cesarean section with high-risk factors. - Though it decreases platelet aggregation, its effect on factor-mediated venous coagulation is inadequate for the prevention of **deep vein thrombosis (DVT)** in this setting.

Practice by Chapter

Normal Puerperium

Practice Questions

Lactation and Breastfeeding

Practice Questions

Postpartum Complications

Practice Questions

Postpartum Depression and Psychiatric Disorders

Practice Questions

Contraception After Delivery

Practice Questions

Postpartum Infections

Practice Questions

Secondary Postpartum Hemorrhage

Practice Questions

Recovery After Cesarean Delivery

Practice Questions

Postpartum Exercise and Rehabilitation

Practice Questions

Follow-up and Future Pregnancy Planning

Practice Questions

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