Dysmenorrhea — MCQs
Which of the following statements accurately describes adenomyosis?
Which of the following is NOT a cause of metrorrhagia?
Gold standard technique for diagnosis of endometriosis?
A 32-year-old P2L2 presents with heavy menstrual bleeding. Ultrasound shows 3cm intramural fibroid. Which management option is associated with the highest long-term patient satisfaction?
22-year-old female comes to your outpatient department complaining of frequent periods, which occur every 18 days. What is this condition called?
PGF2 alpha maximum dose in PPH is-
A 28-year-old woman, G2 P1, with severe PPH unresponsive to oxytocin presents with hypotension and tachycardia. She has a soft uterus and ongoing bleeding. What is the next best step in management?
A 33-year-old female presents with heavy menstrual bleeding for 6 months. On examination, no abnormalities were found, and an ultrasound also appeared normal. After failing non-hormonal treatment, what is the next appropriate management step?
A 29 year old female presented with infertility. There is history of abdominal pain, dyspareunia, dysmenorrhea, menorrhagia. Most likely cause:
The contraceptive choice for a 38 year old woman with chronic hypertension and history of dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia (malignancy ruled out) is:
Dysmenorrhea Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Which of the following statements accurately describes adenomyosis?
- A. More common in parous women
- B. More common in middle-aged women
- C. Presents with menorrhagia, dysmenorrhea, and an enlarged uterus (Correct Answer)
- D. Typically resolves after menopause without treatment
Explanation: ***Presents with menorrhagia, dysmenorrhea, and an enlarged uterus*** - **Adenomyosis** is defined by the presence of **endometrial tissue within the myometrium**, leading to symptoms like **heavy menstrual bleeding (menorrhagia)** and **painful menstruation (dysmenorrhea)**. - The infiltration of endometrial glands and stroma into the uterine muscle causes the uterus to become **enlarged** and often **globular** or boggy on examination. *More common in parous women* - While adenomyosis is more common in women who have had children, this statement alone does not fully encompass the characteristic presentation of the condition. - The exact link between parity and adenomyosis is not completely understood, but it is often attributed to uterine trauma during childbirth allowing endometrial tissue to invade the myometrium. *More common in middle-aged women* - Adenomyosis is indeed more prevalent in **women aged 35 to 50**, but this statement only describes its epidemiology, not its clinical manifestation. - Hormonal fluctuations and prolonged estrogen exposure are thought to contribute to its development in this age group. *Typically resolves after menopause without treatment* - This statement is accurate regarding its resolution, but does not describe adenomyosis itself; rather, it describes its natural progression. - Since adenomyosis is **estrogen-dependent**, its symptoms usually regress or disappear after menopause due to the decline in estrogen levels.
Question 2: Which of the following is NOT a cause of metrorrhagia?
- A. Polyp
- B. CA endometrium
- C. IUD
- D. Intramural fibroid (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Intramural fibroid*** - **Intramural fibroids** are located within the uterine wall and are **primarily associated with menorrhagia** (heavy or prolonged menstrual bleeding during regular periods) rather than metrorrhagia. - Their main effect is to increase the endometrial surface area and impair uterine contractility, leading to **heavy regular menstrual flow**. - While they can occasionally cause irregular bleeding if complicated by degeneration or severe distortion, this is **not their typical presentation**, making them the **least characteristic cause** of metrorrhagia among the given options. *Polyp* - **Endometrial polyps** are **classic causes of metrorrhagia** because their friable surface bleeds irregularly, especially with hormonal fluctuations or minor trauma. - They commonly present with **intermenstrual spotting** and post-coital bleeding, making them a typical cause of irregular bleeding. *CA endometrium* - **Endometrial carcinoma** is a **frequent cause of metrorrhagia**, particularly in postmenopausal women, due to irregular shedding of friable malignant tissue. - The abnormal vascular supply and tissue breakdown in cancer results in **unpredictable, irregular bleeding episodes** characteristic of metrorrhagia. *IUD* - **Intrauterine devices** are **well-known causes of metrorrhagia**, particularly copper IUDs, which cause endometrial irritation and increased prostaglandin release. - Both copper and hormonal IUDs frequently cause **spotting and irregular intermenstrual bleeding**, especially in the first 3-6 months after insertion.
Question 3: Gold standard technique for diagnosis of endometriosis?
- A. Ca 125 level
- B. Ultrasound
- C. MRI
- D. Laparoscopy (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Laparoscopy*** - **Laparoscopy** allows for direct visualization of endometrial implants and enables **biopsy confirmation**, making it the gold standard. - This minimally invasive surgical procedure is crucial for diagnosing, staging, and often treating endometriosis simultaneously. *Ca 125 level* - **CA-125** is a serum marker that can be elevated in endometriosis, but it is **not specific** and can be raised in other conditions like ovarian cancer or physiologic states. - It is primarily used for monitoring treatment response or recurrence, rather than as a primary diagnostic tool. *Ultrasound* - **Transvaginal ultrasound (TVS)** can identify endometriomas (chocolate cysts) and deep infiltrating endometriosis, but it cannot reliably visualize small peritoneal implants. - While it's a good initial imaging modality, its sensitivity for diagnosing all forms of endometriosis is **limited**. *MRI* - **MRI** offers better soft tissue contrast than ultrasound and can identify deep infiltrating endometriosis and some peritoneal implants, especially those involving the bowel or bladder. - However, MRI is **more expensive** and less accessible, and it still cannot definitively rule out all small, superficial endometrial lesions without direct visualization.
Question 4: A 32-year-old P2L2 presents with heavy menstrual bleeding. Ultrasound shows 3cm intramural fibroid. Which management option is associated with the highest long-term patient satisfaction?
- A. Tranexamic acid
- B. Levonorgestrel IUD (Correct Answer)
- C. GnRH analogues
- D. Oral contraceptive pills
Explanation: ***Levonorgestrel IUD*** - The **levonorgestrel IUD** is highly effective in reducing menstrual blood loss and is associated with high long-term satisfaction due to its continuous, localized hormone release and minimal systemic side effects. - It offers contraception and therapeutic benefits for up to 5 years, making it a convenient and durable solution for **heavy menstrual bleeding** (HMB) caused by fibroids. *Tranexamic acid* - **Tranexamic acid** is an antifibrinolytic agent that reduces menstrual blood loss by inhibiting clot breakdown. - While effective for acute heavy bleeding, it does not address the underlying cause (fibroid) and requires administration during each menstrual cycle, leading to lower long-term satisfaction. *GnRH analogues* - **GnRH analogues** induce a temporary menopausal state, effectively reducing fibroid size and menstrual bleeding. - However, their long-term use is limited by significant side effects (e.g., hot flashes, bone loss) and recurrence of symptoms once treatment is stopped, leading to lower long-term satisfaction. *Oral contraceptive pills* - **Oral contraceptive pills** can reduce menstrual bleeding by thinning the endometrial lining and regulating cycles. - They require daily adherence and may have systemic side effects, which can contribute to lower long-term satisfaction compared to the sustained effect of an IUD.
Question 5: 22-year-old female comes to your outpatient department complaining of frequent periods, which occur every 18 days. What is this condition called?
- A. Polymenorrhea (Correct Answer)
- B. Metrorrhagia
- C. Hypermenorrhea
- D. Menorrhagia
Explanation: ***Polymenorrhea*** - This term describes **menstrual bleeding** that occurs **more frequently than normal**—specifically, an interval of **less than 21 days** between periods. - The patient's 18-day cycle falls within this definition, indicating abnormally frequent menstruation. *Menorrhagia* - **Menorrhagia** refers to **heavy or prolonged menstrual bleeding**, where the duration is typically more than 7 days or blood loss exceeds 80 mL. - It does not specifically describe the frequency of the periods. *Metrorrhagia* - **Metrorrhagia** is characterized by **irregular, acyclic bleeding** between menstrual periods, or bleeding that is not associated with the expected menstrual cycle. - This patient's periods are regular in their frequency, although too frequent, rather than irregular or intermenstrual. *Hypermenorrhea* - This term is often used interchangeably with **menorrhagia**, referring to **excessively heavy menstrual bleeding**. - It does not address the issue of the short interval between menstrual cycles.
Question 6: PGF2 alpha maximum dose in PPH is-
- A. 200 µg
- B. 2 mg (Correct Answer)
- C. 20 mg
- D. 1000 µg
Explanation: ***2 mg*** - The maximum recommended total dose of **PGF2 alpha** (Carboprost/Hemabate) for postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) is **2 mg**. - This limit is typically reached after administering eight doses of 250 µg each. *1000 µg* - This is equivalent to **1 mg**, which is only half of the maximum recommended total dose for PGF2 alpha in PPH. - While individual doses are 250 µg, the cumulative maximum dose is higher. *200 µg* - This dosage is **lower than the standard individual dose** of 250 µg for PGF2 alpha in PPH. - Administering only 200 µg would be suboptimal for managing severe hemorrhage. *20 mg* - This dose is **ten times the maximum recommended total dose** of 2 mg for PGF2 alpha. - Administering 20 mg could lead to severe adverse effects and toxicity.
Question 7: A 28-year-old woman, G2 P1, with severe PPH unresponsive to oxytocin presents with hypotension and tachycardia. She has a soft uterus and ongoing bleeding. What is the next best step in management?
- A. IM carboprost (Correct Answer)
- B. Immediate hysterectomy
- C. Expectant management
- D. IV tranexamic acid
Explanation: ***IM carboprost*** - The **soft uterus** with ongoing bleeding despite oxytocin indicates **uterine atony** as the cause of PPH - Carboprost (PGF2α) is the **standard second-line uterotonic agent** after oxytocin failure - Effectively stimulates strong **uterine contractions** to control hemorrhage from the placental bed - Given intramuscularly at **0.25 mg every 15-90 minutes** (maximum 8 doses) - Contraindicated in active cardiac, pulmonary, or hepatic disease *Immediate hysterectomy* - Peripartum hysterectomy is a **last-resort surgical intervention** for refractory PPH - Should only be performed after failure of medical management (all uterotonics) and conservative surgical options (uterine tamponade, uterine artery ligation, B-Lynch suture) - **Too aggressive** as the immediate next step when second-line uterotonics haven't been tried *Expectant management* - **Completely inappropriate** for severe PPH with hemodynamic instability (hypotension, tachycardia) - Ongoing bleeding from uterine atony requires **immediate aggressive intervention** - Delays increase risk of hypovolemic shock, DIC, maternal morbidity, and mortality *IV tranexamic acid* - **Antifibrinolytic agent** that inhibits plasminogen activation, promoting clot stability - WHO recommends administration **within 3 hours** of PPH onset as an adjunct therapy - While useful in PPH management, it does **not address uterine atony** (the primary cause indicated by soft uterus) - Should be given **in addition to uterotonics**, not as a substitute for definitive management of atony
Question 8: A 33-year-old female presents with heavy menstrual bleeding for 6 months. On examination, no abnormalities were found, and an ultrasound also appeared normal. After failing non-hormonal treatment, what is the next appropriate management step?
- A. Perform endometrial sampling.
- B. Initiate hormonal therapy. (Correct Answer)
- C. Consider hysterectomy.
- D. Perform dilation and curettage (D&C).
Explanation: ***Initiate hormonal therapy.*** - For unexplained **heavy menstrual bleeding (HMB)** in a young woman with a normal workup, hormonal therapy (e.g., combined oral contraceptives, progestin-only pills, or a progestin-releasing IUD) is the first-line medical treatment after non-hormonal options fail. - These treatments stabilize the **endometrial lining** and reduce blood flow, effectively managing symptoms. *Perform endometrial sampling.* - **Endometrial sampling** is typically reserved for women at higher risk of endometrial hyperplasia or cancer, such as those over 45 with HMB, or younger women with persistent irregular bleeding, risk factors for endometrial cancer (e.g., obesity, PCOS), or unresponsive to initial medical therapy. - In this 33-year-old with normal ultrasound and no other identified risk factors, the likelihood of endometrial pathology is low, making sampling less urgent as a *next* step. *Consider hysterectomy.* - **Hysterectomy** is a definitive surgical procedure usually reserved for severe, persistent HMB that has failed all less invasive medical and surgical treatments, or for cases where there is significant uterine pathology (e.g., large fibroids, adenomyosis) not present here. - It is an irreversible procedure and generally not considered early in the management of heavy menstrual bleeding in a 33-year-old without uterine abnormalities. *Perform dilation and curettage (D&C).* - A **D&C** is a procedure to remove tissue from the uterus, often used for diagnostic purposes (like endometrial sampling) or to remove retained products of conception. - While it can temporarily reduce bleeding by removing some endometrial lining, it is not a long-term solution for treating abnormal uterine bleeding and is typically not indicated as a primary therapeutic step for chronic HMB in the absence of acute severe bleeding or suspected pathology requiring tissue removal.
Question 9: A 29 year old female presented with infertility. There is history of abdominal pain, dyspareunia, dysmenorrhea, menorrhagia. Most likely cause:
- A. Adenomyosis
- B. Endometriosis (Correct Answer)
- C. Cervicitis
- D. Myomas
Explanation: ***Endometriosis*** - The classic triad of symptoms in this 29-year-old female—**dysmenorrhea**, **dyspareunia**, and **infertility**—is highly suggestive of endometriosis. - **Ectopic endometrial tissue** can cause chronic abdominal pain, menorrhagia, and inflammation, contributing to infertility. *Adenomyosis* - This condition involves the presence of **endometrial tissue within the myometrium**, leading to a thickened uterine wall. - While it can cause dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia, **infertility** is not its primary presentation, and it is less commonly associated with severe dyspareunia compared to endometriosis. *Cervicitis* - **Inflammation of the cervix** typically presents with vaginal discharge, post-coital bleeding, or pelvic pain. - It is not a common cause of primary infertility, severe dysmenorrhea, or dyspareunia as described. *Myomas* - Uterine **fibroids (leiomyomas)** are benign tumors that can cause heavy menstrual bleeding (menorrhagia), pelvic pressure, and sometimes infertility. - However, they are less commonly associated with the triad of severe dysmenorrhea and dyspareunia as prominently as seen in endometriosis.
Question 10: The contraceptive choice for a 38 year old woman with chronic hypertension and history of dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia (malignancy ruled out) is:
- A. Copper intrauterine device
- B. Sterilization
- C. Combined oral contraceptive pills
- D. Levonorgestrel intrauterine device (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Levonorgestrel intrauterine device*** - The **Levonorgestrel IUD** is an excellent choice as it provides effective contraception while also treating menorrhagia and dysmenorrhea due to its local progesterone release. - It is safe for women with **hypertension** as it is a **non-estrogen-containing method**, avoiding the increased risk of thrombotic events associated with estrogen. *Copper intrauterine device* - While an effective non-hormonal contraceptive, the **copper IUD** can worsen **dysmenorrhea** and **menorrhagia**, which are existing concerns for the patient. - It does not offer any therapeutic benefits for her heavy and painful periods. *Sterilization* - Although it provides permanent and highly effective contraception, **sterilization** does not address the patient's symptoms of **dysmenorrhea** and **menorrhagia**. - It is an irreversible procedure and typically considered when no further childbearing is desired and symptomatic relief is not a primary concern for the contraceptive method itself. *Combined oral contraceptive pills* - **Combined oral contraceptive pills (COCs)** are generally contraindicated or used with caution in women with uncontrolled **hypertension** due to the estrogen component, which can increase the risk of cardiovascular events, including thrombosis. - While COCs can improve dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia, the cardiovascular risks in a 38-year-old with chronic hypertension outweigh these benefits.
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