Primary Dysmenorrhea — MCQs

All of the following occurs because of prostaglandin use except?

Which of the following is NOT a cause of metrorrhagia?

Primary amenorrhea is defined as:

A 16-year-old girl presents with cyclical pelvic pain every month. She has not achieved menarche yet. On examination, a suprapubic bulge can be seen in the lower abdomen. PR examination reveals a bulging swelling in the anterior aspect. What is the most likely diagnosis?

All of the following are true regarding after pains except:

A 28-year-old woman, G2 P1, with severe PPH unresponsive to oxytocin presents with hypotension and tachycardia. She has a soft uterus and ongoing bleeding. What is the next best step in management?

A 29 year old female presented with infertility. There is history of abdominal pain, dyspareunia, dysmenorrhea, menorrhagia. Most likely cause:

The contraceptive choice for a 38 year old woman with chronic hypertension and history of dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia (malignancy ruled out) is:

A 15-year old unmarried girl comes with history of dysmenorrhea. Age of menarche is 12 years. Per abdominal and per rectum examination reveal nothing abnormal. You will treat the patient with :

Which one of the following about primary dysmenorrhea is NOT true?