Premenstrual Syndrome and PMDD — MCQs
35 yr old with 4 months amenorrhea with increased FSH, decreased estrogen. What is the diagnosis?
Which of the following statements regarding prolactin levels is true?
22-year-old female comes to your outpatient department complaining of frequent periods, which occur every 18 days. What is this condition called?
The most common cause of hyperthyroidism in a young female is?
A newly married couple, the woman is having irregular menstruation. What is the contraceptive of choice?
Which of the following is MOST effective as a first-line management for premenstrual syndrome?
Oligomenorrhoea means ?
A 28 year old woman develops amenorrhoea after having dilatation and curettage. The most likely diagnosis is :
Day 20 of menstrual cycle falls under which phase?
What is the commonest cause of primary amenorrhea?
Premenstrual Syndrome and PMDD Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: 35 yr old with 4 months amenorrhea with increased FSH, decreased estrogen. What is the diagnosis?
- A. Premature ovarian failure (Correct Answer)
- B. Pituitary dysfunction
- C. Hypothalamic dysfunction
- D. Polycystic Ovary Syndrome
Explanation: ***Premature ovarian failure*** - The combination of **amenorrhea** for 4 months in a 35-year-old, with **increased FSH** and **decreased estrogen**, is characteristic of premature ovarian failure, indicating the ovaries are no longer responding to FSH stimulation. - This condition signifies the cessation of ovarian function before the age of 40, leading to menopausal symptoms and infertility. *Pituitary dysfunction* - Pituitary dysfunction might lead to **decreased FSH** (hypogonadotropic hypogonadism) due to insufficient stimulation of the ovaries, not increased FSH. - In cases of pituitary adenomas, increased prolactin can cause amenorrhea, but FSH would not be elevated in the manner described. *Hypothalamic dysfunction* - Hypothalamic dysfunction, such as **functional hypothalamic amenorrhea**, typically presents with **low or normal FSH and LH levels** (hypogonadotropic hypogonadism) due to reduced GnRH pulsatility. - This condition is often associated with stress, excessive exercise, or low body weight, and would not cause elevated FSH as seen here. *Polycystic Ovary Syndrome* - **Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)** is characterized by **anovulation**, resulting in amenorrhea or oligomenorrhea, but typically involves **elevated androgens** and a **high LH-to-FSH ratio**, with FSH levels generally normal or low, and estrogen levels often normal or slightly elevated. - It would not present with simultaneously high FSH and low estrogen, which points to ovarian failure rather than anovulation with intact ovarian reserve.
Question 2: Which of the following statements regarding prolactin levels is true?
- A. Hyperthyroidism - Increased prolactin
- B. Sleep - Increased prolactin (Correct Answer)
- C. Organic seizure - normal prolactin
- D. Psychogenic seizure - Normal prolactin
Explanation: ***Sleep - Increased prolactin*** - Prolactin secretion is **pulsatile** and highest during **nocturnal sleep**, peaking around 4-5 AM. - This physiological increase occurs regardless of sleep onset and is a normal diurnal rhythm. *Hyperthyroidism - Increased prolactin* - **Hyperthyroidism** typically causes **decreased prolactin levels** due to altered dopaminergic tone and thyroid hormone effects on pituitary lactotrophs. - Conversely, **hypothyroidism**, particularly primary hypothyroidism, can lead to **increased prolactin** due to elevated TRH stimulating prolactin secretion. *Organic seizure - normal prolactin* - An **organic seizure** (e.g., tonic-clonic seizure) usually causes an **acute, significant elevation in prolactin** levels postictally. - This transient rise in prolactin can be a valuable diagnostic marker to differentiate epileptic seizures from non-epileptic events. *Psychogenic seizure - Decreased prolactin* - **Psychogenic non-epileptic seizures (PNES)** typically result in **normal or slightly decreased prolactin** levels after the event. - This is a key diagnostic differentiator from true epileptic seizures, which show postictal prolactin elevation.
Question 3: 22-year-old female comes to your outpatient department complaining of frequent periods, which occur every 18 days. What is this condition called?
- A. Polymenorrhea (Correct Answer)
- B. Metrorrhagia
- C. Hypermenorrhea
- D. Menorrhagia
Explanation: ***Polymenorrhea*** - This term describes **menstrual bleeding** that occurs **more frequently than normal**—specifically, an interval of **less than 21 days** between periods. - The patient's 18-day cycle falls within this definition, indicating abnormally frequent menstruation. *Menorrhagia* - **Menorrhagia** refers to **heavy or prolonged menstrual bleeding**, where the duration is typically more than 7 days or blood loss exceeds 80 mL. - It does not specifically describe the frequency of the periods. *Metrorrhagia* - **Metrorrhagia** is characterized by **irregular, acyclic bleeding** between menstrual periods, or bleeding that is not associated with the expected menstrual cycle. - This patient's periods are regular in their frequency, although too frequent, rather than irregular or intermenstrual. *Hypermenorrhea* - This term is often used interchangeably with **menorrhagia**, referring to **excessively heavy menstrual bleeding**. - It does not address the issue of the short interval between menstrual cycles.
Question 4: The most common cause of hyperthyroidism in a young female is?
- A. TSH-secreting pituitary adenoma
- B. Graves' disease (Correct Answer)
- C. Subacute thyroiditis
- D. Toxic multinodular goiter
Explanation: ***Graves' disease*** - This is an **autoimmune disorder** where antibodies stimulate the thyroid gland, leading to **overproduction of thyroid hormones** [1], [2]. - It is the **most common cause of hyperthyroidism** in young to middle-aged women, making it highly probable in a young female patient [1], [2]. *Toxic multinodular goiter* - This condition is characterized by **multiple nodules** within the thyroid gland that autonomously produce thyroid hormones. - While a cause of hyperthyroidism, it is **more common in older individuals**, typically those over 50 years of age. *Subacute thyroiditis* - This is a **self-limiting inflammatory condition** of the thyroid often following a viral infection, causing a transient hyperthyroid phase due to the release of preformed hormones. - It presents with **painful thyroid enlargement** and is usually followed by a hypothyroid phase, which is different from sustained hyperthyroidism. *TSH-secreting pituitary adenoma* - This is a **very rare cause of hyperthyroidism** where a pituitary tumor produces excess **Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (TSH)**, leading to thyroid overstimulation. - It is often accompanied by other symptoms of a pituitary mass like **headaches or visual field defects**, which are not implied here.
Question 5: A newly married couple, the woman is having irregular menstruation. What is the contraceptive of choice?
- A. Barrier method
- B. Calendar method
- C. OCP (Correct Answer)
- D. Progesterone only pills
Explanation: ***OCP*** - **Oral Contraceptive Pills (OCPs)** are a highly effective method that also help regulate **menstrual cycles** due to their hormonal content. - They provide effective contraception while simultaneously addressing the symptom of **irregular menstruation** in a newly married woman. *Barrier method* - **Barrier methods** like condoms are effective for contraception but do not address or regulate irregular menstrual cycles. - Their effectiveness depends heavily on consistent and correct use with each act of intercourse. *Calendar method* - The **calendar method** relies on tracking the menstrual cycle to predict fertile windows and is unreliable with **irregular menstruation**. - It would be ineffective as a contraceptive for a woman with unpredictable cycle lengths, leading to a high risk of unintended pregnancy. *Progesterone only pills* - **Progesterone-only pills** (POPs) can be used for contraception, but they may cause or exacerbate **menstrual irregularities**. - While effective in preventing pregnancy, they do not offer the cycle-regulating benefits that combination OCPs do for women with irregular periods.
Question 6: Which of the following is MOST effective as a first-line management for premenstrual syndrome?
- A. Hysterectomy with oophorectomy
- B. Diuretics
- C. Niacin (vitamin B3)
- D. Combined oral contraceptive pills (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Combined oral contraceptive pills*** - **Combined oral contraceptive pills** are the **most comprehensive first-line pharmacological treatment** for **premenstrual syndrome (PMS)** by suppressing ovulation and stabilizing hormonal fluctuations throughout the menstrual cycle. - They address both physical and mood-related symptoms of PMS effectively. - Continuous or extended-cycle regimens can be particularly beneficial by reducing the number of menstrual periods and related symptom flares. *Niacin (vitamin B3)* - There is **no robust scientific evidence** to support the efficacy of **niacin (vitamin B3)** in the management of PMS symptoms. - While **vitamin B6** has some evidence for mild PMS symptoms, **niacin (B3)** is not recommended. - High doses of niacin can cause side effects such as flushing, itching, and gastrointestinal upset. *Diuretics* - **Spironolactone**, a potassium-sparing diuretic, can be effective for managing **specific fluid retention symptoms** associated with PMS, such as bloating and breast tenderness. - However, diuretics are typically used as **adjunctive therapy** for specific symptoms rather than comprehensive first-line management. - They do not address the broader spectrum of emotional and psychological symptoms of PMS. *Hysterectomy with oophorectomy* - **Hysterectomy with oophorectomy** (removal of the uterus and ovaries) is a **last-resort treatment** for severe, refractory Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder (PMDD) after all medical therapies have failed. - This is an **irreversible surgical procedure** that induces immediate surgical menopause with significant risks and long-term implications. - It is **never a first-line treatment** for PMS management.
Question 7: Oligomenorrhoea means ?
- A. Cycle < 20 days
- B. Cycle more than 45 days
- C. Cycle more than 28 days
- D. Cycle longer than 35 days (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Cycle longer than 35 days*** - **Oligomenorrhea** is defined by menstrual cycles that are **infrequently occurring**, specifically lasting longer than 35 days. - This condition is distinct from **amenorrhea**, which is the complete absence of menstruation. *Cycle < 20 days* - A menstrual cycle lasting less than 20 days is considered **polymenorrhea**, indicating abnormally frequent menstruation. - This is the opposite of oligomenorrhea, which refers to infrequent menstruation. *Cycle more than 45 days* - While a cycle longer than 45 days would technically fall under **oligomenorrhea**, the general definition begins at an interval longer than **35 days**. - Cycles significantly longer than 45 days might also point to **amenorrhea**, depending on the exact duration and pattern. *Cycle more than 28 days* - A cycle lasting more than 28 days is within the **normal range** for many individuals, as the average cycle length is 21-35 days. - Therefore, this duration alone does **not define oligomenorrhea**.
Question 8: A 28 year old woman develops amenorrhoea after having dilatation and curettage. The most likely diagnosis is :
- A. Kallman syndrome
- B. Turner syndrome
- C. Asherman syndrome (Correct Answer)
- D. Anorexia nervosa
Explanation: ***Asherman syndrome*** - It is characterized by the formation of **intrauterine adhesions** or **synechiae** that occur due to trauma to the endometrial lining, most commonly following a **D&C procedure**. - These adhesions can lead to **amenorrhea**, hypomenorrhea, infertility, and recurrent pregnancy loss due to the obstruction of the uterine cavity. *Kallman syndrome* - This is a **congenital hypogonadotropic hypogonadism** characterized by a deficiency in GnRH production and an associated **anosmia** (loss of smell), neither of which are suggested by the clinical presentation. - Patients typically present with **primary amenorrhea** and delayed puberty, not secondary amenorrhea following a D&C. *Turner syndrome* - A **chromosomal disorder (45, XO)** leading to **gonadal dysgenesis** and ovarian failure. - It typically presents with **primary amenorrhea**, short stature, webbed neck, and other distinct physical features, which are not mentioned here. *Anorexia nervosa* - This is an **eating disorder** associated with severe caloric restriction and low body weight. - It can cause **hypothalamic amenorrhea** due to impaired GnRH pulsatility but is usually accompanied by significant weight loss and psychological symptoms, not typically heralded by a D&C.
Question 9: Day 20 of menstrual cycle falls under which phase?
- A. Menstrual phase
- B. Follicular phase
- C. Ovulation phase
- D. Luteal phase (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Luteal phase*** - The **luteal phase** typically starts after ovulation, around day 14, and lasts until menstruation begins, usually day 28 of a 28-day cycle. Therefore, **day 20 falls squarely within this phase**. - During this phase, the **corpus luteum** forms and produces **progesterone**, preparing the uterus for potential pregnancy. *Menstrual phase* - The **menstrual phase** is the period of shedding of the uterine lining, typically occurring from **day 1 to day 5** of the menstrual cycle. - Day 20 is well past this phase, during which bleeding and low hormone levels are characteristic. *Follicular phase* - The **follicular phase** starts on day 1 of menstruation and lasts until ovulation, usually around **day 13-14** in a 28-day cycle. - During this phase, follicles mature under the influence of **FSH** and **estrogen** levels rise. Day 20 is beyond this period. *Ovulation phase* - The **ovulation phase** is a short period, typically around **day 14** of a 28-day cycle, when the mature egg is released from the ovary. - This phase is brief and marks the transition from the follicular to the luteal phase, so day 20 is considerably after ovulation.
Question 10: What is the commonest cause of primary amenorrhea?
- A. Genital tuberculosis
- B. Ovarian dysgenesis (Correct Answer)
- C. Mullerian duct anomalies
- D. Hypothyroidism
Explanation: **Explanation:** Primary amenorrhea is defined as the failure of menarche to occur by age 15 in the presence of secondary sexual characteristics, or by age 13 in their absence. **Why Ovarian Dysgenesis is Correct:** **Ovarian dysgenesis (specifically Turner Syndrome, 45,XO)** is the most common cause of primary amenorrhea, accounting for approximately 40-50% of cases. In these patients, accelerated atresia of germ cells leads to "streak ovaries," resulting in hypergonadotropic hypogonadism (high FSH/LH, low Estrogen). This lack of estrogen prevents both the development of secondary sexual characteristics and the stimulation of the endometrium. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Genital Tuberculosis:** While a significant cause of infertility and secondary amenorrhea in developing countries, it rarely presents as primary amenorrhea unless it causes severe prepubertal endometrial destruction. * **Mullerian Duct Anomalies:** Conditions like MRKH syndrome (Mullerian Agenesis) are the *second* most common cause. These patients have normal ovaries and secondary sexual characteristics but lack a functional uterus/vagina. * **Hypothyroidism:** This is a systemic endocrine cause that more typically results in secondary amenorrhea or oligomenorrhea; it is rarely the primary etiology for a complete failure of menarche. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common cause overall:** Ovarian Dysgenesis (Turner Syndrome). * **Most common cause with normal secondary sexual characteristics:** Mullerian Agenesis (MRKH Syndrome). * **Initial investigation of choice:** Karyotyping (if FSH is high) or Ultrasound (to check for the presence of a uterus). * **Turner Syndrome Hallmark:** Short stature, webbed neck, and high FSH levels.
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