Menstrual Disorders — MCQs

Menstrual Disorders Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 201: What is the upper age limit to diagnose a patient as having primary amenorrhea, if secondary sexual characteristics are present?

A. 14 years
B. 16 years (Correct Answer)
C. 18 years
D. 12 years

Explanation: **16 years** - Primary amenorrhea is defined as the absence of menarche by the age of **16 years** despite the presence of **secondary sexual characteristics**, or by age 14 if secondary sexual characteristics are absent. - This definition helps in identifying individuals who may have underlying anatomical or endocrine disorders affecting the reproductive system that require investigation. *12 years* - While it's early in the normal range for menarche, the absence of menses at 12 years with secondary sexual characteristics is not typically considered primary amenorrhea unless other signs of delayed puberty are present. - The average age for menarche is around 12.5 years, so waiting until an older age when secondary sexual characteristics are established is more appropriate for a definitive diagnosis of primary amenorrhea. *14 years* - This age is the cutoff for diagnosing primary amenorrhea if **secondary sexual characteristics are absent**. - However, if secondary sexual characteristics are present, indicating onset of puberty, a longer waiting period (up to 16 years) is allowed before diagnosis, as menarche may still occur spontaneously. *18 years* - By 18 years, the absence of menarche would certainly warrant investigation, but the diagnostic criteria for primary amenorrhea dictate an earlier intervention. - Waiting until 18 years could delay the identification and management of potential underlying causes, which ideally should be addressed earlier.

Question 202: Most common cause of menorrhagia in adolescents?

A. Thyroid disorder
B. Coagulation disorders (Correct Answer)
C. Leiomyomas
D. Polyps

Explanation: ***Coagulation disorders*** - **Coagulation disorders**, particularly **von Willebrand disease**, are the **most common identifiable pathological cause** of menorrhagia in adolescents, found in **13-20%** of cases with heavy menstrual bleeding. - These disorders lead to **impaired platelet function** or **coagulation factor deficiencies**, resulting in prolonged and heavy menstrual bleeding. - **ACOG recommends** screening for bleeding disorders in all adolescents presenting with menorrhagia, especially if present since menarche or refractory to treatment. - While anovulation due to immature HPO axis is common, coagulation disorders represent the key **underlying pathology** requiring investigation. *Thyroid disorder* - **Thyroid disorders** can affect menstrual cycles but are a less common primary cause of menorrhagia in adolescents compared to coagulation disorders. - Both **hypothyroidism** and **hyperthyroidism** can lead to menstrual irregularities, including heavy bleeding. *Leiomyomas* - **Leiomyomas (fibroids)** are benign uterine tumors that cause menorrhagia primarily in **older reproductive-aged women**, not typically in adolescents. - Their presence in adolescents is **rare**, making them an unlikely cause of menorrhagia in this age group. *Polyps* - **Endometrial polyps** can cause intermenstrual bleeding or menorrhagia, but they are **infrequent in adolescents**. - Polyps are more common in **perimenopausal** and **postmenopausal women**, so they are not the most common cause in younger patients.

Question 203: A 33-year-old female presents with heavy menstrual bleeding for 6 months. Examination and ultrasound show no abnormalities. After failing non-hormonal treatment, what is the next management step?

A. Hormonal therapy (Correct Answer)
B. Endometrial sampling
C. Hysterectomy
D. Surgical intervention (e.g., endometrial ablation)

Explanation: ***Hormonal therapy*** - When **non-hormonal treatments** for heavy menstrual bleeding fail and there are no structural abnormalities, **hormonal therapy** is the next appropriate step to regulate the menstrual cycle and reduce bleeding. - This typically includes options like **oral contraceptive pills**, progestin-only pills, or a **levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (LNG-IUS)**. *Endometrial sampling* - **Endometrial sampling** is primarily indicated to rule out endometrial hyperplasia or carcinoma, particularly in women over 45, with risk factors like obesity, or persistent abnormal bleeding unresponsive to treatment. - In a 33-year-old with no ultrasound abnormalities and heavy menstrual bleeding, **hormonal treatment** for symptomatic relief is usually attempted before invasive diagnostics, unless there are specific risk factors for malignancy. *Hysterectomy* - **Hysterectomy** is a definitive surgical procedure for heavy menstrual bleeding and is typically considered a last resort after other medical and less invasive surgical options have failed, especially in women who desire future fertility or wish to avoid major surgery. - Given the patient's age and the lack of structural abnormalities, less invasive and conservative treatments are preferred initially. *Surgical intervention (e.g., endometrial ablation)* - **Endometrial ablation** is an option for heavy menstrual bleeding when medical management fails, but it is considered a more invasive step than hormonal therapy and is generally reserved for women who have completed childbearing. - It would typically be considered after the failure of hormonal therapy, not immediately after non-hormonal therapy, especially in a younger patient.

Question 204: Day 20 of menstrual cycle falls under which phase?

A. Menstrual phase
B. Follicular phase
C. Ovulation phase
D. Luteal phase (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Luteal phase*** - The **luteal phase** typically starts after ovulation, around day 14, and lasts until menstruation begins, usually day 28 of a 28-day cycle. Therefore, **day 20 falls squarely within this phase**. - During this phase, the **corpus luteum** forms and produces **progesterone**, preparing the uterus for potential pregnancy. *Menstrual phase* - The **menstrual phase** is the period of shedding of the uterine lining, typically occurring from **day 1 to day 5** of the menstrual cycle. - Day 20 is well past this phase, during which bleeding and low hormone levels are characteristic. *Follicular phase* - The **follicular phase** starts on day 1 of menstruation and lasts until ovulation, usually around **day 13-14** in a 28-day cycle. - During this phase, follicles mature under the influence of **FSH** and **estrogen** levels rise. Day 20 is beyond this period. *Ovulation phase* - The **ovulation phase** is a short period, typically around **day 14** of a 28-day cycle, when the mature egg is released from the ovary. - This phase is brief and marks the transition from the follicular to the luteal phase, so day 20 is considerably after ovulation.

Question 205: What is a common cause of unilateral dysmenorrhea?

A. One horn of malformed uterus (Correct Answer)
B. Small fibroid at the utero tubal junction
C. Endometriosis causing unilateral pain
D. All of the options

Explanation: ***One horn of malformed uterus*** - **Obstructed rudimentary horn** with functional endometrium or **obstructed hemivagina** in uterine anomalies is a **classic cause of unilateral dysmenorrhea**. - The obstruction leads to accumulation of menstrual blood in the non-communicating horn or hemivagina, causing **severe cyclical unilateral pelvic pain** that worsens progressively with each menstrual cycle. - This typically presents in **adolescents or young women** after menarche and is a well-recognized gynecological emergency requiring surgical intervention. - Examples include: **unicornuate uterus with non-communicating rudimentary horn**, **uterus didelphys with obstructed hemivagina** (OHVIRA syndrome). *Endometriosis causing unilateral pain* - While endometriosis causes **dysmenorrhea**, it typically presents with **bilateral pelvic pain** and diffuse tenderness. - Endometriosis pain is usually **generalized** rather than strictly unilateral, though asymmetric involvement can occur. - The pain is associated with **deep dyspareunia**, **dyschezia**, and chronic pelvic pain rather than strictly unilateral cyclical pain. *Small fibroid at the utero tubal junction* - Fibroids (leiomyomas) can cause **dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia**, but unilateral presentation is uncommon. - Cornual fibroids may cause localized pain, but this is not a typical or common presentation of **unilateral dysmenorrhea**. - Pain from fibroids is usually related to **degeneration** or pressure effects rather than cyclical unilateral menstrual pain. *All of the options* - While multiple conditions can cause pelvic pain, **obstructed müllerian anomalies** (one horn of malformed uterus) are the **most classic and important cause** of true unilateral dysmenorrhea. - This is the diagnosis that must be ruled out when a patient presents with unilateral cyclical pelvic pain.

Question 206: Which of the following is NOT a cause of metrorrhagia?

A. Polyp
B. CA endometrium
C. IUD
D. Intramural fibroid (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Intramural fibroid*** - **Intramural fibroids** are located within the uterine wall and are **primarily associated with menorrhagia** (heavy or prolonged menstrual bleeding during regular periods) rather than metrorrhagia. - Their main effect is to increase the endometrial surface area and impair uterine contractility, leading to **heavy regular menstrual flow**. - While they can occasionally cause irregular bleeding if complicated by degeneration or severe distortion, this is **not their typical presentation**, making them the **least characteristic cause** of metrorrhagia among the given options. *Polyp* - **Endometrial polyps** are **classic causes of metrorrhagia** because their friable surface bleeds irregularly, especially with hormonal fluctuations or minor trauma. - They commonly present with **intermenstrual spotting** and post-coital bleeding, making them a typical cause of irregular bleeding. *CA endometrium* - **Endometrial carcinoma** is a **frequent cause of metrorrhagia**, particularly in postmenopausal women, due to irregular shedding of friable malignant tissue. - The abnormal vascular supply and tissue breakdown in cancer results in **unpredictable, irregular bleeding episodes** characteristic of metrorrhagia. *IUD* - **Intrauterine devices** are **well-known causes of metrorrhagia**, particularly copper IUDs, which cause endometrial irritation and increased prostaglandin release. - Both copper and hormonal IUDs frequently cause **spotting and irregular intermenstrual bleeding**, especially in the first 3-6 months after insertion.

Question 207: Oligomenorrhoea means ?

A. Cycle < 20 days
B. Cycle more than 45 days
C. Cycle more than 28 days
D. Cycle longer than 35 days (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Cycle longer than 35 days*** - **Oligomenorrhea** is defined by menstrual cycles that are **infrequently occurring**, specifically lasting longer than 35 days. - This condition is distinct from **amenorrhea**, which is the complete absence of menstruation. *Cycle < 20 days* - A menstrual cycle lasting less than 20 days is considered **polymenorrhea**, indicating abnormally frequent menstruation. - This is the opposite of oligomenorrhea, which refers to infrequent menstruation. *Cycle more than 45 days* - While a cycle longer than 45 days would technically fall under **oligomenorrhea**, the general definition begins at an interval longer than **35 days**. - Cycles significantly longer than 45 days might also point to **amenorrhea**, depending on the exact duration and pattern. *Cycle more than 28 days* - A cycle lasting more than 28 days is within the **normal range** for many individuals, as the average cycle length is 21-35 days. - Therefore, this duration alone does **not define oligomenorrhea**.

Question 208: What is the most common age range for women experiencing dysfunctional uterine bleeding?

A. 40-45 years (Correct Answer)
B. 50-55 years
C. 60-65 years
D. 20-25 years

Explanation: ***40-45 years*** - This age range typically represents the **perimenopausal period**, where fluctuating hormones (estrogen and progesterone) often lead to anovulatory cycles and thus, **dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB)**. - As women approach menopause, ovarian function becomes irregular, leading to inconsistent ovulation and endometrial instability. - This is the **most common age range** for DUB due to hormonal instability. *50-55 years* - While some women may still experience DUB into their early 50s, this range is more commonly associated with **menopause itself**, where bleeding generally ceases. - Persistent bleeding in this age group may signal other pathologies rather than typical anovulatory DUB. *60-65 years* - Bleeding at this age is considered **postmenopausal bleeding** and is always a red flag for serious underlying conditions such as **endometrial hyperplasia** or **endometrial cancer**, and is not attributed to DUB. - The ovaries have typically ceased functioning, and there should be no normal menstrual bleeding. *20-25 years* - DUB can occur in this age range due to factors like **polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)** or **immature hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis** (especially in adolescents). - However, it is **less common** than during the perimenopausal period and often stems from different underlying causes.

Question 209: Which of the following drugs is not commonly used for menorrhagia?

A. GnRH
B. NSAIDS
C. Methergin
D. Clomiphene (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Clomiphene*** - **Clomiphene citrate** is a selective estrogen receptor modulator used primarily to **induce ovulation** in women with infertility, not to treat menorrhagia. - Its mechanism involves blocking estrogen receptors in the hypothalamus, leading to increased release of **gonadotropins (FSH and LH)**. - It has no role in the management of heavy menstrual bleeding. *Methergin* - **Methergine (methylergonovine)** is an ergot alkaloid that causes sustained uterine contractions. - It is primarily used for **postpartum hemorrhage** and control of bleeding after abortions (acute obstetric bleeding). - While it can control acute uterine bleeding, it is **not used for chronic menorrhagia management** due to its side effects and availability of better alternatives. - It is an acute intervention, not a treatment for cyclic heavy menstrual bleeding. *GnRH* - **GnRH agonists** (e.g., leuprolide) are used to treat menorrhagia by inducing a **hypoestrogenic state**, which leads to endometrial atrophy and reduced menstrual bleeding. - They are often used as a temporary measure before surgery or for short-term management due to potential side effects like **hot flashes and bone loss**. *NSAIDS* - **Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)**, such as ibuprofen or naproxen, reduce prostaglandin production, which can decrease **menstrual blood loss** by affecting uterine contractility and vasoconstriction. - They are a common first-line treatment for menorrhagia, especially when associated with **painful periods (dysmenorrhea)**.

Question 210: Preferred treatment for menorrhagia in reproductive age group?

A. Cu IUD
B. Hysterectomy
C. NOVA T
D. OCPs (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***OCPs*** - **Combined oral contraceptives (OCPs)** are a common and effective first-line treatment for menorrhagia in reproductive-aged women, particularly when contraception is also desired. - They work by stabilizing the **endometrial lining**, reducing menstrual blood loss and regulating cycles. *NOVA T* - NOVA T is a type of **copper IUD (intrauterine device)**, which is known to potentially *increase* menstrual bleeding and dysmenorrhea, making it unsuitable for menorrhagia. - Its primary function is contraception, not the management of heavy menstrual bleeding. *Cu IUD* - The **copper intrauterine device (Cu IUD)** is generally contraindicated in women with menorrhagia because it can exacerbate heavy menstrual bleeding. - While an effective contraceptive, it does not offer therapeutic benefits for managing heavy periods. *Hysterectomy* - **Hysterectomy** is a surgical procedure for removing the uterus and is considered a definitive treatment for menorrhagia. - However, it is an **invasive procedure** with irreversible loss of fertility, typically reserved for severe cases where conservative treatments have failed or when other uterine pathology is present.

Practice by Chapter

Normal Menstrual Physiology

Practice Questions

Primary Dysmenorrhea

Practice Questions

Secondary Dysmenorrhea

Practice Questions

Premenstrual Syndrome and PMDD

Practice Questions

Primary Amenorrhea

Practice Questions

Secondary Amenorrhea

Practice Questions

Polycystic Ovary Syndrome

Practice Questions

Abnormal Uterine Bleeding: Classification

Practice Questions

Evaluation of Menstrual Disorders

Practice Questions

Management Approaches to Menstrual Disorders

Practice Questions

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