Maternal-Fetal Medicine — MCQs

Maternal-Fetal Medicine Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 521: Twin pregnancy predisposes to which of the following complications?

A. Hydramnios
B. Pregnancy-induced hypertension
C. Malpresentation
D. All of the above (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Explanation:** Twin pregnancy is a high-risk condition because the presence of more than one fetus significantly increases the physiological and mechanical demands on the maternal system. * **Hydramnios (Polyhydramnios):** This occurs in approximately 10% of twin pregnancies. It is often associated with Twin-to-Twin Transfusion Syndrome (TTTS) in monochorionic twins, where the recipient twin develops polyuria. It can also result from an increased total fetal urine output due to the presence of two fetuses. * **Pregnancy-Induced Hypertension (PIH):** The risk of PIH and preeclampsia is 2–3 times higher in multifetal gestations. This is attributed to the increased placental mass (hyperplacentosis), which leads to a higher release of anti-angiogenic factors (like sFlt-1) into the maternal circulation. * **Malpresentation:** Due to the limited intrauterine space and the presence of two fetuses, the likelihood of at least one twin being in a non-cephalic position (breech or transverse) is high. Only about 40–50% of twin pregnancies present with both fetuses in the cephalic position. **Conclusion:** Since all the listed conditions are recognized complications of multifetal gestation, **Option D** is the correct answer. **High-Yield NEET-PG Pearls:** * **Most common complication:** Preterm labor/prematurity. * **Most common presentation:** Cephalic-Cephalic (Vertex-Vertex). * **Anemia:** Iron deficiency anemia is more common due to increased fetal demand. * **Postpartum Hemorrhage (PPH):** Increased risk due to uterine overdistension leading to atony.

Question 522: What is the commonest cause of ectopic pregnancy?

A. Previous tubal disease (Correct Answer)
B. Oral contraceptives
C. Intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD)
D. Endometriosis

Explanation: **Explanation:** **1. Why "Previous Tubal Disease" is Correct:** The most common cause and strongest risk factor for ectopic pregnancy is **previous tubal disease**, typically resulting from **Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)**. Chronic inflammation (often due to *Chlamydia trachomatis*) leads to the destruction of the endosalpingeal cilia and the formation of intratubal adhesions or scarring. This structural and functional damage hinders the normal transport of the fertilized ovum, causing it to implant within the fallopian tube before reaching the uterine cavity. **2. Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Oral Contraceptives:** These prevent pregnancy by inhibiting ovulation. They do not increase the risk of ectopic pregnancy; in fact, they are protective because they prevent pregnancy altogether. * **Intrauterine Contraceptive Device (IUCD):** While an IUCD user who becomes pregnant has a higher *relative* risk that the pregnancy is ectopic, the *absolute* risk is lower than in women not using any contraception. It is a risk factor, but not the "commonest cause." * **Endometriosis:** While pelvic endometriosis can cause adhesions that distort tubal anatomy, it is a much less frequent cause compared to the widespread incidence of tubal damage from infections. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Most common site of ectopic pregnancy:** Ampulla (70%). * **Most common site of tubal rupture:** Isthmus (due to its narrow lumen). * **Strongest Risk Factor:** Previous history of ectopic pregnancy (increases risk by 10-fold). * **Classic Triad:** Amenorrhea, abdominal pain, and vaginal bleeding (present in only 50% of cases). * **Gold Standard Diagnosis:** Transvaginal Ultrasound (TVS) + Serial quantitative β-hCG levels.

Question 523: Which of the following is FALSE regarding maternal adaptations in multiple pregnancy compared to singleton pregnancy?

A. Greater maternal blood volume expansion
B. Proportionately more red cell mass increase along with fluid increase, resulting in a similar Hemoglobin pattern as singleton pregnancy (Correct Answer)
C. Higher incidence of hyperemesis in twins
D. Higher blood volume expansion in twins

Explanation: In multiple pregnancies, maternal physiological adaptations are significantly more pronounced than in singleton pregnancies to meet the increased metabolic demands of multiple fetuses. **Explanation of the Correct Option (B):** While both plasma volume and red cell mass increase in multiple pregnancies, the **plasma volume expansion is disproportionately greater** than the increase in red cell mass. In a singleton pregnancy, plasma volume increases by ~40-45%, whereas in twins, it increases by ~50-60%. Because the fluid (plasma) increase far outweighs the cellular (RBC) increase, the resulting **hemodilution is more severe**. Consequently, the average hemoglobin concentration is lower in multiple pregnancies (often 10 g/dL vs. 11 g/dL in singletons), making Option B false. **Analysis of Other Options:** * **Options A & D:** These are true. Maternal blood volume expansion is significantly higher in twins (approx. 500-600 mL more than singletons) to support the increased placental surface area and protect against hemorrhage during delivery. * **Option C:** This is true. Higher levels of circulating Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG) and estrogen produced by multiple placentas lead to a higher incidence and severity of *hyperemesis gravidarum*. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Cardiac Output:** Increases by an additional 20% in twins compared to singletons due to increased stroke volume and heart rate. * **Uterine Blood Flow:** Significantly higher to accommodate multiple fetuses. * **Anemia Risk:** Due to the "exaggerated physiological anemia" (greater hemodilution) and higher iron/folate demands, women with twins are at a much higher risk of iron-deficiency anemia. * **Respiratory:** Greater elevation of the diaphragm leads to more pronounced dyspnea.

Question 524: Medical treatment of ectopic pregnancy should be offered to which of the following patient profiles?

A. hCG level < 10,000 IU/L and mass size < 4 cm (Correct Answer)
B. hCG level < 5,000 IU/L and mass size < 5 cm
C. hCG level < 7,500 IU/L and mass size < 7.5 cm
D. hCG level < 2,000 IU/L and mass size < 3 cm

Explanation: **Explanation:** The medical management of ectopic pregnancy primarily involves the administration of **Methotrexate**, a folic acid antagonist that inhibits DNA synthesis in rapidly dividing trophoblastic cells. The success of medical therapy is highly dependent on the initial serum β-hCG levels and the size of the ectopic mass. **Why Option A is Correct:** According to standard clinical guidelines (including ACOG and RCOG), medical management is most effective and should be considered when the **serum β-hCG is < 5,000–10,000 IU/L** and the **ectopic mass size is < 4 cm**. While a lower hCG (< 5,000) is preferred for higher success rates, the threshold of < 10,000 IU/L with a mass < 4 cm represents the upper limit of acceptable criteria for offering medical treatment in a hemodynamically stable patient without fetal cardiac activity. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Option B:** While an hCG < 5,000 is a very strong indication, a mass size of < 5 cm is generally considered too large, increasing the risk of rupture and treatment failure. * **Option C:** An hCG of 7,500 is acceptable, but a mass size of 7.5 cm is a contraindication for medical management; surgical intervention is required. * **Option D:** These values are very safe for medical management, but they are overly restrictive. Patients with higher values (up to 4 cm and 10,000 IU/L) are still eligible for treatment. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Absolute Contraindications for Methotrexate:** Hemodynamic instability (ruptured ectopic), intrauterine pregnancy, breastfeeding, and hepatic/renal/hematologic dysfunction. * **Relative Contraindications:** Fetal cardiac activity and hCG > 5,000 IU/L (increased failure rate). * **Monitoring:** hCG levels are measured on Day 4 and Day 7. A drop of **≥ 15%** between Day 4 and Day 7 indicates successful treatment. * **Dose:** Single-dose regimen is 50 mg/m² BSA.

Question 525: What is the most common cause of pyelonephritis in pregnancy?

A. Pseudomonas
B. E. coli (Correct Answer)
C. Proteus
D. Klebsiella

Explanation: **Explanation:** Acute pyelonephritis is the most common serious medical complication of pregnancy, occurring in approximately 1–2% of pregnancies. **1. Why E. coli is correct:** *Escherichia coli* is the most common causative organism, isolated in **70–80%** of cases. The primary mechanism is the ascending spread of bacteria from the lower urinary tract. In pregnancy, physiological changes—such as progesterone-induced ureteral smooth muscle relaxation and mechanical compression of the ureters by the gravid uterus—lead to **hydroureter and urinary stasis**. This environment facilitates the migration of fecal flora (like *E. coli*) from the perineum to the kidneys. **2. Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Klebsiella (D) and Proteus (C):** These are the next most common organisms (approx. 3–5% each) but occur significantly less frequently than *E. coli*. *Proteus* is often associated with the formation of struvite stones. * **Pseudomonas (A):** This is an uncommon cause in uncomplicated pregnancy. It is typically associated with nosocomial infections, structural abnormalities of the urinary tract, or recent catheterization. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Right-sided Predominance:** Pyelonephritis is more common on the **right side** due to dextrorotation of the uterus and the protective cushioning of the left ureter by the sigmoid colon. * **Screening:** Asymptomatic Bacteriuria (ASB) must be screened for and treated in pregnancy because 20–40% of untreated ASB cases progress to pyelonephritis. * **Complications:** It is a leading cause of septic shock and ARDS in pregnancy. * **Treatment:** Requires hospitalization and IV antibiotics (usually Cephalosporins).

Question 526: Which of the following are commonly seen in preeclampsia?

A. Hypertension, Proteinuria, Convulsions, and Pedal edema (Correct Answer)
B. Hypertension
C. Hypertension and Pedal edema
D. Proteinuria and Convulsions

Explanation: **Explanation:** Preeclampsia is a multisystem disorder of pregnancy characterized by the new onset of hypertension and involvement of one or more organ systems (classically proteinuria) after 20 weeks of gestation. **Why Option A is correct:** The classic clinical triad of preeclampsia includes **Hypertension** (BP ≥140/90 mmHg) and **Proteinuria** (≥300 mg/24h or ≥1+ dipstick). While the modern ACOG criteria allow for a diagnosis without proteinuria if other "end-organ" signs are present, **Pedal edema** (excessive weight gain/pathological edema) remains a common clinical finding due to increased capillary permeability and hypoalbuminemia. **Convulsions** (Eclampsia) represent the severe end of the spectrum. Option A provides the most comprehensive list of features traditionally associated with the progression of the disease. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Option B & C:** These are incomplete. Hypertension alone could be Gestational Hypertension. Pedal edema is common in normal pregnancy; its presence without proteinuria or other systemic signs is insufficient for a diagnosis of preeclampsia. * **Option D:** Proteinuria and convulsions without hypertension are rare and do not represent the standard diagnostic presentation of the disease. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Definition Change:** Proteinuria is no longer *mandatory* for diagnosis if there is evidence of end-organ dysfunction (thrombocytopenia, renal insufficiency, impaired liver function, or visual symptoms). * **Edema:** Only "pathological edema" (non-dependent edema of the face and hands) is clinically significant; pedal edema is now considered a non-specific sign. * **Drug of Choice:** **Magnesium Sulfate ($MgSO_4$)** is the gold standard for preventing and treating convulsions (Eclampsia). * **Definitive Treatment:** Delivery of the fetus and placenta.

Question 527: Nile blue sulphate test in amniotic fluid is indicative of which fetal maturity?

A. Pulmonary maturity
B. Renal maturity
C. Hepatic maturity
D. Dermal maturity (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **Explanation:** The **Nile blue sulphate test** is a cytological assessment used to estimate fetal age by identifying **sebaceous gland activity** in the fetal skin. 1. **Why Dermal Maturity is Correct:** As the fetus matures, the sebaceous glands begin to function and shed lipid-containing cells (sebocytes) into the amniotic fluid. When Nile blue sulphate stain is added to the fluid, these lipid-rich cells stain **orange**. * If **>50%** of cells are orange-stained, it indicates a gestational age of **>38 weeks** (full-term dermal maturity). * A count of **>20%** generally correlates with a gestational age of **>34-35 weeks**. 2. **Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Pulmonary Maturity:** This is assessed via the **L/S ratio** (Lecithin/Sphingomyelin), Phosphatidylglycerol (PG) levels, or the **Shake test** (Bubble stability test). * **Renal Maturity:** This is typically estimated by measuring **amniotic fluid creatinine** levels (usually >2 mg/dL indicates maturity). * **Hepatic Maturity:** There is no standard amniotic fluid test for hepatic maturity; it is clinically irrelevant for determining fetal readiness for delivery in this context. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Orange cells** = Mature sebocytes (Dermal maturity). * **Blue cells** = Nucleated squamous cells (Integumentary origin but not specific for term maturity). * While historically significant, this test is rarely used in modern practice, having been replaced by **ultrasound biometry** and **biochemical markers** for lung maturity. * **Amniotic Fluid Bilirubin ($\Delta$OD 450):** Used to monitor Rh-isoimmunization, not maturity.

Question 528: Malformations of which of the following fetal organ systems are most commonly associated with a single umbilical artery?

A. Central nervous system
B. Cardiovascular
C. Genitourinary (Correct Answer)
D. Skeletal

Explanation: **Explanation:** **Single Umbilical Artery (SUA)**, also known as a 2-vessel cord, occurs when one of the two umbilical arteries is absent (usually the left). While most cases are isolated, approximately 20–30% are associated with structural anomalies or chromosomal trisomies (especially Trisomy 18 and 13). **Why Genitourinary is correct:** Among the associated structural malformations, **Genitourinary (GU) anomalies** are the most frequently documented. The common embryological origin and proximity of the umbilical arteries to the developing urogenital system explain this link. Common GU findings include renal agenesis, multicystic dysplastic kidney, and hydronephrosis. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Cardiovascular (B):** These are the second most common anomalies associated with SUA (e.g., VSD). While highly significant, they statistically follow GU anomalies in frequency in most large-scale screening studies. * **Central Nervous System (A) & Skeletal (D):** While anomalies like holoprosencephaly or limb defects can occur with SUA (particularly in the context of aneuploidy), they are significantly less common than GU or cardiac defects. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Incidence:** ~1% of singleton pregnancies; higher in twin gestations and diabetic mothers. * **Management:** If SUA is detected on a mid-trimester scan, a **detailed targeted anomaly scan (Level II)** and **fetal echocardiography** are mandatory. * **Prognosis:** If the SUA is an isolated finding (no other anomalies), the prognosis is generally excellent, though there is a slightly increased risk of **Intrauterine Growth Restriction (IUGR)**. * **Vessel Anatomy:** The normal cord contains **two arteries** (carrying deoxygenated blood from fetus to placenta) and **one vein** (carrying oxygenated blood to the fetus).

Question 529: A 35-week pregnant patient presents with painless vaginal bleeding. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Placenta previa (Correct Answer)
B. Abruptio placenta
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. None of the above

Explanation: **Explanation:** The hallmark clinical presentation of **Placenta Previa** is **painless, causeless, and recurrent** vaginal bleeding in the third trimester. In this condition, the placenta is implanted in the lower uterine segment, overlying or near the internal os. As the lower segment stretches and the cervix begins to efface in late pregnancy, the placental attachments are disrupted, leading to bright red maternal bleeding without associated uterine tenderness or pain. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Abruptio Placenta:** This involves the premature separation of a normally situated placenta. It typically presents with **painful** vaginal bleeding, uterine tenderness, and increased uterine tone (woody hard uterus). * **Ectopic Pregnancy:** This is a first-trimester complication (usually presenting between 6–10 weeks). By 35 weeks, an undiagnosed ectopic pregnancy is virtually impossible as it would have ruptured much earlier. * **None of the above:** Incorrect, as Placenta Previa is the classic diagnosis for the symptoms described. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **The "Golden Rule":** Never perform a per-vaginal (PV) examination in a case of antepartum hemorrhage until placenta previa is ruled out by ultrasound, as it can provoke torrential hemorrhage (Stallworthy's sign). * **Investigation of Choice:** Transvaginal Sonography (TVS) is the gold standard for diagnosing placental localization (safer and more accurate than transabdominal). * **Risk Factors:** Multiparity, advanced maternal age, and previous uterine scarring (C-section or D&C). * **Management:** If the patient is stable and <37 weeks, **Macafee’s expectant management** is followed to achieve fetal maturity.

Question 530: What is the most common type of twin pregnancy?

A. Dichorionic diamniotic (Correct Answer)
B. Monochorionic diamniotic
C. Monochorionic monoamniotic
D. Dichorionic monoamniotic

Explanation: **Explanation:** The correct answer is **Dichorionic diamniotic (DCDA)**. To understand this, we must categorize twins into two biological types: **Dizygotic (Fraternal)** and **Monozygotic (Identical)**. 1. **Why DCDA is correct:** * **Dizygotic twins** account for approximately **two-thirds (70%)** of all twin pregnancies. By definition, since they arise from two separate ova and two separate sperm, they *always* result in two placentas (Dichorionic) and two sacs (Diamniotic). * **Monozygotic twins** account for the remaining **one-third (30%)**. Even within this group, if the zygote splits early (within the first 3 days), it results in a DCDA pregnancy. * Combining all Dizygotic cases with early-split Monozygotic cases makes **DCDA the most common overall type.** 2. **Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Monochorionic diamniotic (MCDA):** This occurs when the zygote splits between days 4–8. While it is the most common type of *monozygotic* pregnancy (75%), it is less common than DCDA globally. * **Monochorionic monoamniotic (MCMA):** This occurs when splitting happens late (days 8–13). It is rare (~1% of monozygotic twins) and carries high risk due to cord entanglement. * **Dichorionic monoamniotic:** This is physiologically impossible. If there are two separate chorions (placentas), they will always have their own individual amniotic sacs. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Lambda (λ) sign / Twin-peak sign:** Seen on ultrasound in DCDA twins (thick membrane). * **T-sign:** Seen on ultrasound in MCDA twins (thin membrane). * **Timing of cleavage determines chorionicity:** * 0–3 days: DCDA * 4–8 days: MCDA * 8–13 days: MCMA * >13 days: Conjoined twins

Practice by Chapter

Fetal Assessment Techniques

Practice Questions

Hypertensive Disorders in Pregnancy

Practice Questions

Intrauterine Growth Restriction

Practice Questions

Multiple Gestation

Practice Questions

Rh Isoimmunization and Other Blood Group Incompatibilities

Practice Questions

Intrauterine Fetal Therapy

Practice Questions

Prenatal Diagnosis and Genetic Counseling

Practice Questions

Placental Abnormalities

Practice Questions

Preterm Labor and Delivery

Practice Questions

Management of Medical Disorders in Pregnancy

Practice Questions

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