Maternal-Fetal Medicine — MCQs

Aneuploidy is the most common genetic abnormality, accounting for up to 50% of clinical miscarriages. All are true about aneuploidy, EXCEPT?

A healthy 23-year-old G1P0 has had an uncomplicated pregnancy to date. She is disappointed because she is 41 weeks gestational age by good dates and a first-trimester ultrasound and wants to have her baby. She feels like she has been pregnant forever and wants to have her baby now. The patient reports good fetal movement; she has been doing kick counts for the past several days and reports that the baby moves about eight times an hour on average. On physical exam, her cervix is firm, posterior, 50% effaced, and 1 cm dilated, and the vertex is at a -1 station. As her obstetrician, what would you recommend to the patient?

Which of the following statements is true regarding chorionicity in multifetal pregnancy?

What is the current imaging technique of choice for the diagnosis of hydatidiform mole?

Nitabuch's layer is absent in which of the following conditions?

A healthy, 44-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, has a screening ultrasound at 18 weeks' gestation that shows no fetal anomalies. At 32 weeks' gestation, she experiences decreased fetal movement, and ultrasound reveals fetal growth restriction with relative sparing of the fetal head. The placenta appears normally positioned in the lateral fundus but seems small, and the amniotic fluid index is reduced. Maternal blood pressure is normal. Which of the following conditions is most likely present?

USG examination of a 28-week pregnant primigravida shows vasa previa. All of the following are true regarding this condition, EXCEPT:

Cervical incompetence is when the cervix measures less than?

A 37-year-old primigravida at 30 weeks' gestation has noted increasing pedal edema, headaches, confusion, and decreased urine output for the past 2 weeks. She now exhibits seizure activity and then lapses into a coma. On physical examination, her temperature is 36.8°C, pulse is 82/min, respirations are 24/min, and blood pressure is 145/95 mm Hg. Her heart rate is regular, and lung fields are clear. The abdomen is soft, and bowel sounds are present. There is pitting edema to the thighs. No vaginal bleeding is noted, and the cervix is not effaced. Laboratory findings show hemoglobin, 11.9 g/dL; hematocrit, 35.8%; platelet count, 63,500/mm³; WBC count, 8180/mm³; glucose, 151 mg/dL; total protein, 6.1 g/dL; albumin, 3.2 g/dL; total bilirubin, 2.3 mg/dL; AST, 88 U/L; ALT, 103 U/L; alkaline phosphatase, 253 U/L; and prothrombin time, 32 seconds (INR 2.8). Urinalysis shows specific gravity of 1.024, pH 6, 4+ proteinuria, 1+ glucosuria, and no blood. An ultrasound examination shows a viable 30-week fetus. What condition is most likely present in this patient?

A 22-week pregnant patient, gravida 3 with a history of a second-trimester abortion, presents with abdominal pain. Ultrasound reveals internal os tunneling and a cervical length of 21 mm. What is the ideal management?