Maternal-Fetal Medicine Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following are individual indicators of fetal distress?

All of the options. ***All of the options*** - **Meconium staining** of the amniotic fluid, **late decelerations of fetal heart rate**, and a **decrease in fetal scalp blood pH** are all recognized individual indicators of fetal distress. - These signs individually or collectively suggest that the fetus is experiencing **hypoxia** or other adverse conditions. *Meconium staining* - Refers to the presence of **meconium** (the first stool of a newborn) in the **amniotic fluid**, which can indicate fetal stress leading to gasping and passage of meconium. - While concerning, it's not always indicative of severe hypoxia but warrants further assessment. - **Mechanism**: Fetal hypoxia → vagal stimulation → relaxation of anal sphincter → meconium passage. *Late deceleration of heart rate* - **Late decelerations** are symmetric drops in fetal heart rate that begin after the peak of the contraction and return to baseline after the contraction has ended. - They are associated with **uteroplacental insufficiency** and **fetal hypoxia**, reflecting inadequate oxygen delivery to the fetus. - **Significance**: Indicates fetal compromise requiring immediate evaluation and potential intervention. *Decrease in fetal scalp blood pH* - A **low fetal scalp blood pH** (typically below 7.20) indicates **fetal acidosis**, which is a direct sign of **fetal hypoxemia** and distress. - It suggests that the fetus is undergoing anaerobic metabolism due to insufficient oxygen supply. - **Clinical utility**: Provides objective biochemical evidence of fetal compromise when CTG is non-reassuring.

Q: In cases where threatened abortion is associated with ongoing placental insufficiency, what is the most likely fetal complication?

Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR). ***Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)*** - **Placental insufficiency** is the leading cause of **IUGR**, as the placenta fails to deliver adequate oxygen and nutrients to the developing fetus - In threatened abortion associated with ongoing placental insufficiency, the chronic nature of reduced placental function directly impairs fetal growth - IUGR is characterized by fetal weight below the 10th percentile for gestational age and is the most predictable complication of sustained placental dysfunction - This represents a direct cause-and-effect relationship: inadequate placental function → reduced fetal nutrition → growth restriction *Fetal malformation* - Congenital malformations are primarily caused by **genetic abnormalities**, **teratogenic exposures**, or **early developmental errors** during organogenesis - Placental insufficiency does not cause structural malformations, though it may affect fetal growth and development - Malformations would typically be established early in pregnancy, independent of placental function *Preterm labor* - While placental insufficiency can be associated with preterm labor in some cases, this is not the **most likely** or most direct fetal complication - Preterm labor is a maternal-fetal process influenced by multiple factors including infection, cervical insufficiency, and uterine abnormalities - IUGR is a more consistent and direct consequence of chronic placental insufficiency *None of the options* - This is incorrect as **IUGR** is the established and most likely fetal complication when placental insufficiency is ongoing - The direct pathophysiology of placental insufficiency leading to IUGR is well-documented in obstetric literature

Q: Which condition is associated with a sinusoidal heart rate pattern?

Vasa previa. ***Vasa previa*** - A **sinusoidal heart rate pattern** is a sign of severe **fetal anemia**, often caused by **fetal hemorrhage**. - In vasa previa, unprotected fetal blood vessels course over the cervical os, making them vulnerable to rupture and leading to **fetal bleeding** and subsequent anemia. *Placenta previa* - This condition involves the **placenta covering the cervical os**, primarily causing **painless vaginal bleeding** in the mother. - The bleeding is **maternal blood**, not fetal blood, so it does not directly cause fetal anemia or a sinusoidal heart rate pattern. *Battledore placenta* - In a battledore placenta, the **umbilical cord is inserted marginally** into the placental disk, rather than centrally. - This anatomical variation is generally a benign finding and is not directly associated with fetal hemorrhage or a sinusoidal heart rate pattern. *Succenturiate placenta* - This involves **one or more accessory placental lobes** located separately from the main placental body. - The main concern is a retained lobe after delivery or vessels connecting the lobes, which can cause bleeding, but it is not specifically linked to a sinusoidal heart rate pattern.

Q: In twin pregnancies, what is the minimum percentage difference in size that indicates significant discordance?

25% with the larger twin as index. ***25% with the larger twin as index*** - **Discordant growth** in twin pregnancies is clinically defined as a **25% or greater difference in estimated fetal weight**, calculated using the larger twin as the reference. - This threshold helps predict adverse outcomes related to **unequal placental sharing** or other growth restrictions. *15% with the larger twin as index* - A 15% difference in estimated fetal weight is generally considered **within the normal range** and does not typically indicate significant discordance warranting intervention. - While it represents a difference, it may not be substantial enough to result in increased fetal morbidity or mortality. *15% with the smaller twin as index* - Using the smaller twin as the index for comparison at 15% would likely **overestimate the prevalence of discordance**, as smaller twins naturally contribute to a larger percentage difference when used as the denominator. - This method is not the standard clinical practice for defining significant twin growth discordance. *25% with the smaller twin as index* - Similar to using the smaller twin as the index at 15%, calculating a 25% difference based on the smaller twin would lead to a **misrepresentation of significant discordance**. - The standard definition specifies using the **larger twin's estimated weight** as the denominator for percentage calculation.

Q: Which sign is seen in ultrasound for monochorionic diamniotic twins?

T sign. ***T sign*** - The **T sign** is visualized on ultrasound when the inter-twin membrane inserts perpendicularly onto the chorionic plate, forming a "T" shape. - This specific finding indicates a **monochorionic twin gestation**, meaning they share a single chorion. *Lambda sign* - The **lambda (or twin peak) sign** is seen in dichorionic twin pregnancies, where the chorion extends into the base of the inter-twin membrane, forming a triangular projection. - This sign signifies the presence of **two separate chorions**, indicating a lower risk compared to monochorionic pregnancies. *Twin peak sign* - The **twin peak sign** is synonymous with the lambda sign and indicates a **dichorionic-diamniotic** twin pregnancy. - It results from the extension of placental tissue into the base of the inter-twin membrane, confirming two separate chorions. *Membrane thickness >2mm* - A **thick inter-twin membrane (>2mm)** is typically associated with **dichorionic-diamniotic** pregnancies due to the presence of two separate chorions and amnions. - In monochorionic-diamniotic pregnancies, the membrane is usually **thin** because it only consists of two amniotic layers.

Q: What is the earliest and most conclusive sign of intrauterine fetal death?

Spalding sign. ***Correct: Spalding sign*** - Spalding sign refers to the **overlapping of fetal skull bones** at the sutures, seen on radiological imaging (X-ray or ultrasound). - This occurs due to **liquefaction of the brain tissue** and loss of intracranial support after fetal death. - It is considered the **earliest conclusive radiological sign** of intrauterine fetal death, typically appearing **3-7 days** after fetal demise. - This sign is **highly specific** for fetal death and is widely recognized in obstetric practice. *Incorrect: Intrafetal gas in areas of the great vessels and heart* - Also known as **Robert's sign**, this represents gas formation within the fetal cardiovascular system due to decomposition. - While this is a **definitive sign** of fetal death, it is a **late finding** that typically appears **2-3 weeks after fetal demise**. - It requires significant bacterial decomposition and gas production, making it **not the earliest sign**. *Incorrect: Crowding of ribs* - This sign indicates **collapse of the fetal thoracic cage** due to maceration and loss of soft tissue support. - It is a **late manifestation** of fetal death and appears after more extensive decomposition. - This sign is **less specific** compared to Spalding sign. *Incorrect: Hyperflexion of spine* - **Hyperflexion of the fetal spine** results from loss of muscular tone and ligamentous support after death. - This is also a **late finding** associated with advanced maceration. - It is **not as early or specific** as Spalding sign for diagnosing intrauterine fetal death.

Q: Which of the following interventions has the STRONGEST evidence for reducing the risk of preeclampsia in high-risk pregnant women?

Low-dose aspirin (75-150 mg daily). ***Low-dose aspirin (75-150 mg daily)*** - **Low-dose aspirin** started before 16 weeks of gestation is the **only intervention with robust evidence** for reducing preeclampsia risk in high-risk women (ACOG, WHO, USPSTF recommendations). - Meta-analyses show **17-25% relative risk reduction** in preeclampsia when started early in pregnancy. - Recommended for women with history of preeclampsia, chronic hypertension, diabetes, kidney disease, or multifetal gestation. - Acts by **improving placental perfusion** and reducing thromboxane-mediated vasoconstriction. *Calcium supplementation (1.5-2g daily)* - **Calcium supplementation** shows benefit in **populations with low dietary calcium intake** (typically <600 mg/day). - Less effective in populations with adequate baseline calcium intake (most developed countries). - **WHO recommends** calcium for women in low-calcium settings but **not as first-line** in general high-risk populations. *Smoking cessation* - **Essential for healthy pregnancy** and reduces risks of placental abruption, preterm birth, and IUGR. - While smoking is associated with adverse outcomes, **cessation has not been proven to directly prevent preeclampsia**. - Some studies paradoxically show lower preeclampsia rates in smokers (confounded by lower PlGF levels), but smoking increases overall maternal-fetal morbidity. *Regular blood pressure monitoring* - **Critical for early detection** and management of hypertensive disorders but **does not prevent** their occurrence. - Allows timely intervention to **prevent progression to severe disease** and eclampsia. - Part of routine antenatal care but is a **surveillance measure, not a preventive intervention**.

Q: What is the first-line drug of choice for managing seizures in eclampsia?

Magnesium Sulphate. ***Magnesium Sulphate*** - **Magnesium sulphate** is the **first-line drug of choice** for both the prevention and treatment of seizures in **eclampsia** due to its superior efficacy. - It acts as a **central nervous system depressant** and a **vasodilator**, reducing cerebral edema and improving cerebral perfusion. *Nifedipine* - **Nifedipine** is a **calcium channel blocker** used primarily to manage **hypertension**, especially in **preeclampsia**. - While it can lower blood pressure, it is **not indicated** as a first-line agent for directly treating or preventing **eclamptic seizures**. *Hydralazine* - **Hydralazine** is a **direct-acting vasodilator** used to treat **severe hypertension** in pregnancy, including cases of preeclampsia. - Its primary role is blood pressure control, and it is **not effective** in preventing or treating **eclamptic seizures**. *Labetalol* - **Labetalol** is a **beta-blocker** and **alpha-blocker** used for the management of **hypertension** in pregnancy. - Like other antihypertensives, it addresses blood pressure but **does not have a primary role** in seizure management for **eclampsia**.

Question 1

Which of the following are individual indicators of fetal distress?

Accepted Answer

All of the options

Answer

Meconium staining

Answer

Late deceleration of heart rate

Answer

Decrease in fetal scalp blood pH

Question 2

In cases where threatened abortion is associated with ongoing placental insufficiency, what is the most likely fetal complication?

Accepted Answer

Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)

Answer

Fetal malformation

Answer

Preterm labor

Answer

None of the options

Question 3

Which condition is associated with a sinusoidal heart rate pattern?

Accepted Answer

Vasa previa

Answer

Placenta previa

Answer

Battledore placenta

Answer

Succenturiate placenta

Question 4

In twin pregnancies, what is the minimum percentage difference in size that indicates significant discordance?

Accepted Answer

25% with the larger twin as index

Answer

15% with the smaller twin as index

Answer

25% with the smaller twin as index

Answer

15% with the larger twin as index

Question 5

Which sign is seen in ultrasound for monochorionic diamniotic twins?

Accepted Answer

T sign

Answer

Lambda sign

Answer

Twin peak sign

Answer

Membrane thickness >2mm

Question 6

What is the earliest and most conclusive sign of intrauterine fetal death?

Accepted Answer

Spalding sign

Answer

Crowding of ribs

Answer

Hyperflexion of spine

Answer

Intrafetal gas in areas of the great vessels and heart

Question 7

Which of the following statements about HIV transmission in pregnancy is true?

Accepted Answer

With effective ART, the chance of transmission can be reduced to less than 1%.

Answer

Perinatal transmission of HIV is common.

Answer

Pregnancy increases the risk of acquiring HIV.

Answer

LSCS significantly increases the chances of HIV transmission.

Question 8

Which of the following interventions has the STRONGEST evidence for reducing the risk of preeclampsia in high-risk pregnant women?

Accepted Answer

Low-dose aspirin (75-150 mg daily)

Answer

Smoking cessation

Answer

Calcium supplementation (1.5-2g daily)

Answer

Regular blood pressure monitoring

Question 9

Open neural tube defects are best diagnosed by:

Accepted Answer

Detailed fetal ultrasound examination

Answer

Radiographic imaging techniques

Answer

Screening with maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein

Answer

Measurement of acetylcholinesterase in amniotic fluid

Question 10

What is the first-line drug of choice for managing seizures in eclampsia?

Accepted Answer

Magnesium Sulphate

Answer

Nifedipine

Answer

Hydralazine

Answer

Labetalol

Maternal-Fetal Medicine — MCQs

Maternal-Fetal Medicine — MCQs

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