Maternal-Fetal Medicine Practice Questions

Q: Fetal tachycardia is defined as a heart rate greater than ___ bpm.

160. ***160*** - A fetal heart rate greater than **160 bpm** for more than 10 minutes is defined as **fetal tachycardia**. - This threshold helps differentiate normal variations from sustained elevations, which can indicate fetal distress. *140* - A heart rate of 140 bpm falls within the **normal range** for fetal heart rate, which is typically between 110 and 160 bpm. - This rate does not indicate tachycardia and is usually considered reassuring. *180* - While 180 bpm is certainly tachycardic, the generally accepted clinical definition of fetal tachycardia begins at **160 bpm**. - A heart rate at 180 bpm would be considered **marked tachycardia** and a more urgent finding. *200* - A fetal heart rate of 200 bpm represents **severe tachycardia** and would be a significant indicator of fetal compromise. - The threshold for defining tachycardia is lower at **160 bpm**, making 200 bpm an extreme elevation.

Q: A 29-year-old G3P2 woman at 34 weeks' gestation is involved in a serious car accident, loses consciousness briefly, and presents to the emergency department awake and alert with a severe headache, abdominal, and pelvic pain. Her vital signs include a blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg, heart rate of 120/min, temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F), and respiratory rate of 22/min. Fetal heart rate is 155/min. Physical examination reveals minor bruises on the abdomen and limbs, blood in the vault upon vaginal inspection, and strong, frequent uterine contractions. Which of the following is most likely a complication of her current condition?

DIC. ***DIC*** - The combination of **abruptio placentae** (suggested by trauma, pain, vaginal bleeding, and contractions) with potential severe bleeding from uterine rupture or injury from the car accident, significantly increases the risk of **Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)**. - **DIC** is a life-threatening condition initiated by massive activation of the coagulation system, leading to widespread microthrombi formation and subsequent consumption of clotting factors and platelets, resulting in simultaneous **bleeding and thrombosis**. *IUGR* - **Intrauterine Growth Restriction (IUGR)** is a chronic complication typically developing over weeks or months, caused by placental insufficiency or fetal conditions. - It is unlikely to be an acute complication directly resulting from a traumatic event at 34 weeks gestation. *Subarachnoid hemorrhage* - While trauma can cause **subarachnoid hemorrhage**, the primary obstetric complications described (abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, uterine contractions following trauma) point more strongly towards placental or uterine injury. - The patient's **headache** and brief loss of consciousness could be due to concussion, but the obstetric findings are more immediately concerning for distinct complications. *Vasa previa* - **Vasa previa** is an anatomical anomaly where fetal blood vessels within the membranes cross the internal cervical os, unprotected by placental tissue or Wharton's jelly. - This condition presents with painless vaginal bleeding upon rupture of membranes and **fetal distress**, usually in labor, but is not directly caused by trauma.

Q: Which of the following conditions is least likely to be associated with polyhydramnios?

B/L renal agenesis. ***B/L renal agenesis*** - **Bilateral renal agenesis** (Potter syndrome) leads to **oligohydramnios** (reduced amniotic fluid) because the fetal kidneys are unable to produce urine, which is the primary source of amniotic fluid in the latter half of pregnancy. - The lack of amniotic fluid secondary to failed fetal urine production causes **pulmonary hypoplasia** and characteristic facial features. *Anencephaly* - **Anencephaly** is a major **neural tube defect** characterized by the absence of a large part of the brain and skull. - This condition often leads to **polyhydramnios** because the fetus cannot properly swallow amniotic fluid due to impaired neurological function or dysfunction of the swallowing reflex. *Open spina bifida* - **Open spina bifida** can cause **polyhydramnios** due to neurologic dysfunction affecting fetal swallowing. - The exposed neural tissue can also continuously leak cerebrospinal fluid into the amniotic sac, although impaired swallowing is the primary mechanism. *Tracheoesophageal fistula* - A **tracheoesophageal fistula** (TEF) often presents with **polyhydramnios** because it interferes with the normal passage of amniotic fluid into the fetal gastrointestinal tract. - The fetus is unable to swallow and absorb amniotic fluid effectively, leading to its accumulation in the amniotic sac.

Q: All of the following can cause disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) during pregnancy, except:

Diabetes mellitus. ***Diabetes mellitus*** - While diabetes can lead to various pregnancy complications (e.g., pre-eclampsia, macrosomia), it is **not a direct cause of Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)**. - DIC results from widespread activation of the coagulation system, which is typically triggered by massive tissue injury, release of thromboplastin-like substances, or severe systemic inflammation, none of which are directly initiated by diabetes itself. *Amniotic fluid embolism* - This condition involves the entry of **amniotic fluid components into the maternal circulation**, triggering a severe anaphylactoid reaction and widespread activation of the coagulation cascade. - It rapidly leads to profound **DIC**, characterized by massive hemorrhage and cardiovascular collapse. *Intrauterine death* - A fetus retained in utero for an extended period after death can release **thromboplastin-like substances** from the decaying placental and fetal tissues into the maternal circulation. - This continuous release can **activate the coagulation system**, leading to chronic and then acute DIC. *Abruptio placentae* - This involves the **premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall**, which causes significant retroplacental hemorrhage and exposes maternal blood to large amounts of **tissue factor (thromboplastin)** from the decidua. - The massive release of tissue factor into the maternal circulation strongly **activates the extrinsic coagulation pathway**, making it a major cause of DIC in pregnancy.

Q: Pregnancy-associated risk factors for pre-eclampsia include all except which of the following?

Rh incompatibility. ***Rh incompatibility*** - **Rh incompatibility** is a risk factor for **hemolytic disease of the newborn** and not typically a direct risk factor for **pre-eclampsia**. - Its pathophysiology involves an immune response against fetal red blood cells, distinct from the placental dysfunction seen in pre-eclampsia. *Multiple pregnancy* - **Multiple pregnancies** significantly increase the risk of pre-eclampsia due to a larger placental mass and increased demands on the maternal cardiovascular system. - The elevated placental burden leads to greater production of anti-angiogenic factors, contributing to the development of the disorder. *Fetal structural abnormalities* - While not all **fetal structural abnormalities** increase pre-eclampsia risk, those associated with **poor placental development** or dysfunction, like certain genetic syndromes, can elevate the risk. - This connection is related to impaired placental development and function, similar to severe cases of pre-eclampsia without overt fetal anomalies. *Trisomy 13* - **Trisomy 13** (Patau syndrome) is strongly associated with an increased risk of severe and early-onset **pre-eclampsia**. - The presence of this chromosomal abnormality often leads to significant placental dysfunction and shallow trophoblast invasion, which are hallmarks of pre-eclampsia.

Q: On Doppler, the most ominous sign indicating fetal compromise is:

Absent diastolic flow. ***Absent diastolic flow*** - This indicates a severe increase in **vascular resistance** within the placental circulation, signifying significant fetal compromise. - The absence of forward flow during diastole means the fetus is receiving **minimal blood supply** during relaxation, leading to hypoxia and acidosis. *↑ pulsatility index in umbilical artery* - An elevated pulsatility index (PI) suggests increased resistance to blood flow in the **placental circulation**, indicating compromise. - However, it is generally less severe than absent or reversed diastolic flow, which are later stages of fetal compromise. *↑ S/D blood flow ratio* - An increased S/D ratio in the umbilical artery signifies **higher resistance** to blood flow, often due to placental insufficiency. - While concerning, it is considered an earlier indicator of compromise compared to the complete absence of diastolic flow. *↑ Cerebral artery flow* - Increased cerebral artery flow (often decreased PI in the middle cerebral artery) is a sign of **brain-sparing effect**, where the fetus redistributes blood flow to essential organs. - This is a compensatory mechanism and, while indicating compromise, means the fetus is still able to adapt to some extent, unlike absent diastolic flow which represents decompensation.

Q: Which of the following antenatal complications may cause placentomegaly?

Diabetes. ***Diabetes*** - Maternal **diabetes** (both pre-existing and gestational) is the **most common antenatal complication** causing **placentomegaly** (increased placental weight). - Mechanisms include **villous edema**, **increased cellularity** (hyperplasia), **chorangiosis**, and **vasculopathy**, which are compensatory responses to altered nutrient transfer and chronic hyperglycemia. - The placenta may appear **large, thick, and boggy** in diabetic pregnancies, reflecting chronic metabolic stress and inflammation. *Hypertension* - **Hypertension** (especially chronic hypertension or pre-eclampsia) is typically associated with **smaller, infarcted placentas** rather than placentomegaly, due to impaired uteroplacental blood flow and ischemia. - Conditions like **pre-eclampsia** lead to **placental insufficiency**, infarctions, and often fetal growth restriction—the opposite of placentomegaly. *Abruption* - **Placental abruption** is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall characterized by **retroplacental hemorrhage**, not an increase in placental size. - While abruption creates a **retroplacental hematoma**, this is a localized hemorrhagic event and does not cause generalized placentomegaly (increased placental parenchymal mass). *HIV* - **HIV infection** in pregnancy is **not a typical cause of placentomegaly** among the options listed, though chronic **placental villitis** can occasionally increase placental mass. - However, compared to diabetes, HIV is a **far less common** and less clinically significant cause of placentomegaly. - The primary placental concerns with HIV are **vertical transmission risk** and inflammatory changes, not placental enlargement.

Q: Cholestasis may lead to the following complications except:

Maternal jaundice. ***Maternal jaundice*** - While cholestasis, particularly **intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy (ICP)**, can cause **pruritus and elevated bile acids**, clinically significant **maternal jaundice is uncommon** (occurring in only 10-25% of cases, typically mild). - Maternal jaundice is more of a **clinical manifestation** rather than a serious **complication** of concern in cholestasis. - In contrast, the **major complications of cholestasis are fetal in nature** and represent the primary clinical concerns requiring active management. *Intrauterine fetal death* - **Elevated bile acids** in the maternal circulation cross the placenta and become toxic to the fetus, significantly increasing the risk of **sudden intrauterine fetal death (IUFD)**. - The mechanism involves **fetal cardiac arrhythmias** and myocardial dysfunction due to bile acid accumulation in cardiac cells. - This is the **most serious complication** and the reason for close monitoring and early delivery in cholestasis. *Meconium stained liquor* - Cholestasis is associated with increased incidence of **meconium-stained amniotic fluid** due to fetal distress. - Elevated bile acids are thought to stimulate **fetal gut motility** and cause premature passage of meconium. - This reflects fetal compromise and increased risk of meconium aspiration syndrome. *Preterm labour* - Women with cholestasis have significantly higher rates of **spontaneous preterm labor**, necessitating planned early delivery (typically around 37 weeks). - Bile acids may have **direct effects on uterine contractility** through alterations in prostaglandin metabolism and myometrial sensitivity. - This is a recognized complication requiring obstetric intervention and monitoring.

Q: A pregnant female in the first trimester has a 4-fold rise in IgG against toxoplasmosis. What does it indicate?

Acute infection in mother. ***Acute infection in mother*** - A **4-fold rise in IgG antibodies** between paired sera is the classic serological criterion for **acute or recent infection** with *Toxoplasma gondii*. - A **rising IgG titer** indicates active seroconversion and ongoing immune response to recent exposure, which is clinically significant in pregnancy due to risk of **congenital toxoplasmosis**. - While IgM typically appears first in acute infection, it can persist for months and is less specific; a documented **4-fold IgG rise** is more reliable for diagnosing recent infection. - In the first trimester, acute maternal infection carries approximately **10-25% risk of vertical transmission** and requires further evaluation with IgG avidity testing and consideration of spiramycin therapy. *Chronic infection in mother* - Chronic or past infection is characterized by **stable, unchanging IgG titers**, not rising ones. - A **4-fold rise** indicates an active immune response, which contradicts the definition of chronic/latent infection where antibody levels remain constant. - Women with pre-existing chronic toxoplasmosis (stable IgG, negative IgM) have minimal risk of transmitting infection to the fetus. *Protective antibodies* - While IgG antibodies do provide immunity against reinfection, the key finding here is the **rise in titer**, not just their presence. - **Stable protective antibodies** would show consistent titers on serial testing, not a 4-fold increase. - A rising titer indicates recent antigen exposure and active infection, not established immunity.

Q: A confirmatory scan should be performed at what time in a G2P1 female detected with major placenta previa at 28 weeks on ultrasound (TVS).

At 32 weeks. ***At 32 weeks*** - The **RCOG Green-top Guideline No. 27** and **ACOG guidelines** recommend a confirmatory scan at **32 weeks** for placenta previa detected in the second trimester. - By 32 weeks, the **lower uterine segment** has developed sufficiently to accurately assess whether the placenta previa has resolved or persists. - This timing allows adequate time for **delivery planning** if the previa persists, including scheduling elective cesarean section and arranging appropriate resources. - Approximately **90% of low-lying placentas** identified at 20 weeks will have resolved by 32 weeks due to the development of the lower segment. *At 34 weeks* - While this provides a later assessment, it is **not the standard recommended timing** according to international guidelines. - Delaying the confirmatory scan to 34 weeks reduces the time available for optimal **delivery planning and counseling** if the previa persists. - The standard protocol is 32 weeks for confirmation, with a possible additional scan at 36 weeks if needed for final delivery planning. *At 36 weeks* - This is often used as a **final pre-delivery assessment** if placenta previa persists at 32 weeks, not as the initial confirmatory scan. - Waiting until 36 weeks for the first confirmatory scan may be too late for optimal management, especially if the patient experiences **antepartum hemorrhage**. - By guideline recommendations, 36 weeks is the timing for determining the **exact mode and timing of delivery**, not the initial confirmation. *At onset of labor* - This is a **dangerous approach** that could lead to catastrophic hemorrhage for both mother and fetus. - **Vaginal examination** in the presence of placenta previa can cause severe bleeding and is contraindicated. - Placenta previa requires **planned cesarean section**, which must be arranged well in advance based on earlier ultrasound confirmation, not determined at labor onset.

Question 1

Fetal tachycardia is defined as a heart rate greater than ___ bpm.

Accepted Answer

160

Answer

140

Answer

180

Answer

200

Question 2

A 29-year-old G3P2 woman at 34 weeks' gestation is involved in a serious car accident, loses consciousness briefly, and presents to the emergency department awake and alert with a severe headache, abdominal, and pelvic pain. Her vital signs include a blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg, heart rate of 120/min, temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F), and respiratory rate of 22/min. Fetal heart rate is 155/min. Physical examination reveals minor bruises on the abdomen and limbs, blood in the vault upon vaginal inspection, and strong, frequent uterine contractions. Which of the following is most likely a complication of her current condition?

Accepted Answer

DIC

Answer

IUGR

Answer

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

Answer

Vasa previa

Question 3

Which of the following conditions is least likely to be associated with polyhydramnios?

Accepted Answer

B/L renal agenesis

Answer

Anencephaly

Answer

Open spina bifida

Answer

Tracheoesophageal fistula

Question 4

All of the following can cause disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) during pregnancy, except:

Accepted Answer

Diabetes mellitus

Answer

Intrauterine death

Answer

Abruptio placentae

Answer

Amniotic fluid embolism

Question 5

Pregnancy-associated risk factors for pre-eclampsia include all except which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Rh incompatibility

Answer

Fetal structural abnormalities

Answer

Trisomy 13

Answer

Multiple pregnancy

Question 6

On Doppler, the most ominous sign indicating fetal compromise is:

Accepted Answer

Absent diastolic flow

Answer

↑ pulsatility index in umbilical artery

Answer

↑ S/D blood flow ratio

Answer

↑ Cerebral artery flow

Question 7

Which of the following antenatal complications may cause placentomegaly?

Accepted Answer

Diabetes

Answer

Abruption

Answer

HIV

Answer

Hypertension

Question 8

Cholestasis may lead to the following complications except:

Accepted Answer

Maternal jaundice

Answer

Meconium stained liquor

Answer

Preterm labour

Answer

Intrauterine fetal death

Question 9

A pregnant female in the first trimester has a 4-fold rise in IgG against toxoplasmosis. What does it indicate?

Accepted Answer

Acute infection in mother

Answer

Chronic infection in mother

Answer

Protective antibodies

Answer

None of the above

Question 10

A confirmatory scan should be performed at what time in a G2P1 female detected with major placenta previa at 28 weeks on ultrasound (TVS).

Accepted Answer

At 32 weeks

Answer

At 36 weeks

Answer

At onset of labor

Answer

At 34 weeks

Maternal-Fetal Medicine — MCQs

Maternal-Fetal Medicine — MCQs

On this page

Practice by Chapter

Want unlimited practice?