Maternal-Fetal Medicine Practice Questions

Q: Cardiac output increases maximum at which week?

30-32 wks. ***30-32 wks*** - **Cardiac output** in healthy pregnant women typically reaches its maximum increase of **30-50%** above pre-pregnancy levels between **28 and 32 weeks** of gestation. - This peak output is sustained until term, primarily driven by a significant increase in **stroke volume** and a moderate increase in **heart rate**. *26-28 wks* - While cardiac output steadily rises throughout pregnancy, the **peak increase** is generally not observed as early as **26-28 weeks**. - At this stage, the increase is substantial but is still progressing towards its **maximum point**. *32-34 wks* - The maximal cardiac output is usually achieved **before** this period, typically by **32 weeks**. - From **32 weeks** onwards, cardiac output tends to **plateau**, not increase further. *34-36 wks* - By **34-36 weeks**, cardiac output has generally already reached its peak and **stabilized**. - There is typically no further increase in cardiac output during this timeframe; rather, it is maintained at its maximal level.

Q: What is the most common site for ectopic pregnancies?

Ampulla. ***Ampulla*** - The **ampulla** of the fallopian tube is the most common site for ectopic pregnancies, accounting for about **70-80% of all cases**. - Its **wider lumen** and **tortuous path** can delay the ovum's transit, increasing the likelihood of implantation there. *Isthmus* - The **isthmus** is the second most common site for ectopic pregnancies, accounting for about **12% of cases**. - Pregnancies in this narrow, muscular part of the tube are more prone to **early rupture** due to limited distensibility. *Fimbriae* - **Fimbrial** ectopic pregnancies are rare, accounting for approximately **5% of cases**. - These occur when the fertilized egg implants on the **finger-like projections** at the end of the fallopian tube. *Interstitial/Cornual* - **Interstitial** or **cornual** pregnancies are uncommon but serious, making up about **2-4% of ectopic pregnancies**. - They occur in the portion of the fallopian tube that passes through the **muscular wall of the uterus** and carry a higher risk of hemorrhage due to rich vascularity.

Q: Which of the following statements about the contraction stress test (CST) is MOST accurate?

Negative test is associated with good fetal outcome. ***Negative test is associated with good fetal outcome*** - A **negative CST** indicates that there are no late or significant variable decelerations in response to uterine contractions, suggesting the fetus can tolerate labor. - This finding is strongly correlated with **fetal well-being** and a low likelihood of fetal distress in the near future, with a **negative predictive value of approximately 99%**. *Invasive method* - The CST is considered a **non-invasive test**, as it involves external monitoring of fetal heart rate and uterine contractions. - No instruments are inserted into the body, differentiating it from truly invasive procedures like **amniocentesis**. *Detects fetal well being* - While the CST provides valuable information, it specifically assesses **uteroplacental function and fetal oxygenation reserve** during the stress of contractions, rather than comprehensive fetal well-being. - It identifies fetuses at risk for **uteroplacental insufficiency** but does not evaluate other parameters of fetal health. - Other tests like the **biophysical profile** offer a more comprehensive assessment of fetal well-being, including parameters like fetal breathing, movement, tone, and amniotic fluid volume. *Oxytocin is never used in the test* - **Oxytocin** is frequently used to induce uterine contractions if spontaneous contractions are insufficient for the test (oxytocin challenge test or OCT). - Alternatively, **nipple stimulation** can be used to achieve adequate contractions for the CST.

Q: Which of the following is associated with macrosomia?

Gestational diabetes mellitus. ***Gestational diabetes mellitus*** - **Gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM)** is a common cause of macrosomia because high maternal glucose levels lead to increased fetal insulin production, which promotes growth and fat deposition. - The **hyperglycemic environment** in GDM stimulates fetal overgrowth, resulting in larger-than-average babies. *Hypothyroidism* - **Maternal hypothyroidism** is typically associated with **fetal growth restriction** and lower birth weight, not macrosomia. - Undiagnosed or poorly controlled hypothyroidism can lead to complications such as **preterm labor** and **preeclampsia**, but not increased fetal size. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **gestational diabetes mellitus** is directly associated with macrosomia. - There is a clear and well-documented link between maternal hyperglycemia and increased fetal growth. *Maternal anemia* - **Maternal anemia**, especially severe anemia, is generally associated with an **increased risk of fetal growth restriction** and **low birth weight**. - Anemia limits oxygen and nutrient delivery to the fetus, thereby hindering optimal growth.

Q: Which condition is associated with exclusively fetal blood loss?

Vasa previa. ***Vasa previa*** - Vasa previa occurs when **fetal blood vessels** from the umbilical cord traverse the membranes over the cervical os, underneath the fetal presenting part. - Rupture of these unprotected vessels, which can happen during labor or membrane rupture, leads to **exclusively fetal blood loss**, posing a high risk of fetal exsanguination and death. *Placenta praevia* - This condition involves the **placenta implanting low** in the uterus, potentially covering the internal cervical os. - Bleeding in placenta previa is typically **maternal** in origin, resulting from the detachment of the placenta from the uterine wall as the cervix dilates. *Polyhydramnios* - Polyhydramnios is characterized by an **excessive amount of amniotic fluid**. - It is not directly associated with antepartum or intrapartum bleeding, but rather with conditions that affect fetal swallowing or urination, such as **fetal gastrointestinal anomalies** or maternal diabetes. *Oligohydramnios* - Oligohydramnios refers to an **insufficient amount of amniotic fluid**. - While it can be associated with various fetal and maternal complications, such as **renal agenesis** or premature rupture of membranes, it does not typically cause blood loss.

Q: What is the best method to diagnose an unruptured ectopic pregnancy?

USG. ***Correct Answer: USG*** - **Transvaginal ultrasound (TVS)** is the most common and effective method for diagnosing an unruptured ectopic pregnancy. It allows for visualization of a gestational sac outside the uterus or an adnexal mass. - In conjunction with **serum beta-hCG levels**, TVS helps to differentiate between an intrauterine pregnancy and an ectopic pregnancy, especially when hCG levels are above the discriminatory zone (typically 1500-2000 mIU/mL). - TVS has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting ectopic pregnancy and is **non-invasive**. *Incorrect: Endoscopy* - **Endoscopy** (such as laparoscopy) is a surgical procedure, primarily used for direct visualization and treatment of ectopic pregnancies, not for initial diagnosis. - It is *too invasive* for routine diagnostic purposes in an unruptured ectopic pregnancy. *Incorrect: UPT* - A **urine pregnancy test (UPT)** confirms pregnancy but *cannot determine the location* of the pregnancy. - A positive UPT only indicates the presence of **hCG**, which is elevated in both intrauterine and ectopic pregnancies. *Incorrect: Culdocentesis* - **Culdocentesis** involves aspirating fluid from the cul-de-sac and is used to detect the presence of *free blood* in the peritoneal cavity, indicating a **ruptured** ectopic pregnancy. - It is not useful for diagnosing an **unruptured ectopic pregnancy** and is largely replaced by ultrasound in modern practice.

Q: What is the definitive treatment for preeclampsia?

Delivery of the baby. ***Delivery of the baby*** - **Preeclampsia** is a multisystem disorder of pregnancy; its pathogenesis is directly linked to the **placenta**. - **Removal of the placenta** through delivery is the only definitive cure for preeclampsia, leading to the resolution of symptoms. *Use of antihypertensive medications* - Antihypertensive medications are used to **manage blood pressure** in preeclampsia, preventing complications like stroke. - They **do not address the underlying cause** of the disease and are not a curative treatment. *Dietary modifications* - While a healthy diet is important during pregnancy, **dietary modifications** alone cannot resolve the pathological processes of preeclampsia. - There is **no specific diet** proven to cure or prevent preeclampsia. *Increased rest and monitoring* - **Increased rest and close monitoring** are supportive measures that can help manage symptoms and detect complications. - These interventions **do not reverse the disease process** and are not a definitive treatment.

Q: In a severely anaemic pregnant patient presenting with cardiac failure, what is the most appropriate choice of transfusion?

Exchange transfusion. ***Exchange transfusion*** - In **severe anaemia with cardiac failure**, exchange transfusion simultaneously **removes** and **replaces** blood volume, correcting anaemia without **net volume increase** that could worsen cardiac failure. - This procedure is the **safest option** as it avoids **fluid overload** while effectively improving **oxygen-carrying capacity** in cardiac-compromised pregnant patients. *Platelets* - **Platelets** are indicated for **thrombocytopenia** or **platelet dysfunction** to prevent bleeding, not for correcting anaemia. - They provide no benefit for **oxygen transport** or the underlying cause of cardiac failure in this anaemic patient. *Packed cells* - **Packed red blood cells** still add **net volume** to circulation, which can precipitate **pulmonary edema** and worsen cardiac failure despite slower infusion. - Even with **diuretics**, the risk of **fluid overload** remains significant in patients with pre-existing cardiac compromise. *Whole blood* - **Whole blood** contains **plasma volume** that significantly increases circulatory load, making it particularly dangerous in cardiac failure. - The large **volume expansion** can rapidly lead to **congestive heart failure** and **pulmonary edema** in already compromised patients.

Q: Which of the following is the MOST CRITICAL indication for Acyclovir use during pregnancy?

Treatment of disseminated herpes. ***Treatment of disseminated herpes*** - **Disseminated herpes** in pregnancy is a severe, life-threatening condition for both the mother and the fetus, making acyclovir use critically indicated. - This systemic infection can lead to **visceral organ involvement**, **encephalitis**, and significantly increased maternal and fetal morbidity and mortality. - Immediate treatment with intravenous acyclovir is essential to prevent **multi-organ failure** and death. *Treatment of chickenpox in the first trimester* - While chickenpox in the first trimester can be serious, leading to **congenital varicella syndrome**, acyclovir's role here is primarily to mitigate maternal illness, not as critical as disseminated herpes. - The risk of congenital varicella syndrome for the fetus is relatively low (around 0.4%) after maternal infection in the first trimester. *Prophylaxis for recurrent herpes during pregnancy* - **Prophylactic acyclovir** in the third trimester is commonly used to prevent recurrent genital herpes and reduce the risk of **neonatal herpes**, but it is not as acutely critical as treating disseminated disease. - This intervention aims to prevent transmission during delivery rather than managing an immediate, life-threatening maternal or fetal condition. *Prevention of cytomegalovirus infection in pregnancy* - Acyclovir has **minimal activity against CMV** and is not indicated for CMV prevention or treatment. - **Ganciclovir** or **valganciclovir** are the antivirals used for CMV, not acyclovir.

Q: A hypertensive pregnant woman at 34 weeks presents with a history of abdominal pain, bleeding per vaginum, and loss of fetal movements. On examination, the uterus is contracted with increased uterine tone, and fetal heart sounds are absent. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Abruptio placenta. ***Abruptio placenta*** - The classic presentation of **abruptio placenta** includes **abdominal pain**, **vaginal bleeding**, **increased uterine tone**, and **loss of fetal movements** in a patient with **hypertension**. - **Hypertension** is a significant risk factor for abruptio placenta, and the absence of fetal heart sounds suggests **fetal demise**, which can occur due to severe abruption. *Polyhydramnios* - Characterized by an **excessive accumulation of amniotic fluid**, which leads to an abnormally large uterus. - It usually presents with **uterine distension** and shortness of breath, not abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, or increased uterine tone. *Placenta previa* - Typically presents with **painless vaginal bleeding** in the second or third trimester. - The uterus is usually **soft and non-tender**, unlike the increased uterine tone seen in abruptio placenta. *Premature labour* - Defined by **regular uterine contractions** causing cervical change before 37 weeks of gestation. - While contractions cause abdominal pain, it does not typically present with significant **vaginal bleeding** or sustained **increased uterine tone** as described.

Question 1

Cardiac output increases maximum at which week?

Accepted Answer

30-32 wks

Answer

26-28 wks

Answer

34-36 wks

Answer

32-34 wks

Question 2

What is the most common site for ectopic pregnancies?

Accepted Answer

Ampulla

Answer

Isthmus

Answer

Fimbriae

Answer

Interstitial/Cornual

Question 3

Which of the following statements about the contraction stress test (CST) is MOST accurate?

Accepted Answer

Negative test is associated with good fetal outcome

Answer

Invasive method

Answer

Detects fetal well being

Answer

Oxytocin is never used in the test

Question 4

Which of the following is associated with macrosomia?

Accepted Answer

Gestational diabetes mellitus

Answer

None of the options

Answer

Hypothyroidism

Answer

Maternal anemia

Question 5

Which condition is associated with exclusively fetal blood loss?

Accepted Answer

Vasa previa

Answer

Placenta praevia

Answer

Polyhydramnios

Answer

Oligohydramnios

Question 6

What is the best method to diagnose an unruptured ectopic pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

USG

Answer

Endoscopy

Answer

UPT

Answer

Culdocentesis

Question 7

What is the definitive treatment for preeclampsia?

Accepted Answer

Delivery of the baby

Answer

Use of antihypertensive medications

Answer

Dietary modifications

Answer

Increased rest and monitoring

Question 8

In a severely anaemic pregnant patient presenting with cardiac failure, what is the most appropriate choice of transfusion?

Accepted Answer

Exchange transfusion

Answer

Platelets

Answer

Packed cells

Answer

Whole blood

Question 9

Which of the following is the MOST CRITICAL indication for Acyclovir use during pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Treatment of disseminated herpes

Answer

Treatment of chickenpox in the first trimester

Answer

Prophylaxis for recurrent herpes during pregnancy

Answer

Prevention of cytomegalovirus infection in pregnancy

Question 10

A hypertensive pregnant woman at 34 weeks presents with a history of abdominal pain, bleeding per vaginum, and loss of fetal movements. On examination, the uterus is contracted with increased uterine tone, and fetal heart sounds are absent. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Abruptio placenta

Answer

Polyhydramnios

Answer

Premature labour

Answer

Placenta previa

Maternal-Fetal Medicine — MCQs

Maternal-Fetal Medicine — MCQs

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