Maternal-Fetal Medicine Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following statements about MgSO4 is false?

Not used as antihypertensive. ***Not used as antihypertensive*** - This statement is **false** because **Magnesium sulfate (MgSO4)** is indeed used for its **antihypertensive** properties, especially in obstetric emergencies like **preeclampsia** and **eclampsia**, where it helps lower blood pressure. - While its primary role in these conditions is seizure prevention, its **vasodilatory effects** contribute to blood pressure reduction. *Deep tendon reflexes are monitored for toxicity* - This statement is **true**. The primary sign of impending **Magnesium sulfate toxicity** is the **loss of deep tendon reflexes**, particularly the patellar reflex. - Monitoring reflexes is crucial for safe administration and to prevent serious complications like **respiratory depression**. *It acts as a membrane stabilizer and neuroprotector* - This statement is **true**. MgSO4 is thought to exert its **anticonvulsant** effect by acting as a **membrane stabilizer** and a **neuroprotector**. - It reduces neuronal excitability, blocks glutamate receptors, and antagonizes calcium influx, thereby protecting brain cells from damage. *Duration of therapy may differ between eclampsia and preeclampsia* - This statement is **true**. The **loading dose** (4-6g IV) and **maintenance dose** (1-2g/hr) of MgSO4 are typically the same for both conditions. - However, the **duration of therapy** differs based on clinical presentation: eclampsia treatment requires continuation for 24 hours after the last seizure, while preeclampsia may require shorter durations. - Eclampsia may also necessitate longer monitoring to prevent recurrent seizures.

Q: Which is the most common presentation in twin pregnancy?

Vertex - vertex. ***Vertex - vertex*** - This is the most common presentation in **twin pregnancies**, occurring in approximately **40-45%** of cases. - Both twins are positioned head-down, which is the optimal presentation for a vaginal delivery. *Vertex - breech* - This presentation, where the first twin is head-down and the second twin is feet- or buttocks-first, occurs in about **30%** of twin pregnancies. - While relatively common, it is still less frequent than the vertex-vertex presentation. *Breech - breech* - This presentation, where both twins are positioned feet- or buttocks-first, is less common, occurring in less than **10%** of twin pregnancies. - It usually necessitates a **cesarean section** due to increased risks associated with vaginal breech delivery for both twins. *Vertex - Footling* - **Footling breech** is a specific type of breech presentation where one or both feet present first. - While a vertex presentation for the first twin and a footling breech for the second twin can occur, it's a less common overall presentation for twin pairs compared to vertex-vertex.

Q: What is the most common cause of death in babies with vasa previa?

Fetal exsanguination. ***Fetal exsanguination*** - In vasa previa, unprotected fetal blood vessels course directly over the **internal cervical os**. When the membranes rupture, these vessels are at high risk of tearing, leading to **rapid fetal blood loss**. - This acute hemorrhage results in **fetal exsanguination**, causing severe **anemia**, **hypoxia**, and ultimately **death** if not immediately identified and managed. *Infection* - While infection can arise in obstetric complications, it is **not the primary or most common cause of death** specifically associated with vasa previa. - The immediate and life-threatening danger in vasa previa is **acute blood loss**, not microbial invasion. *Maternal exsanguination* - Vasa previa primarily involves **fetal blood vessels** in the membranes, not maternal uterine vessels. - Therefore, the blood loss that occurs is almost exclusively fetal, and **maternal exsanguination is not a direct complication** of vasa previa. *Both maternal and fetal exsanguination* - As explained, vasa previa specifically endangers the fetus due to the exposed **fetal blood vessels**. - While fetal exsanguination is the critical event, **maternal exsanguination does not occur** as a direct result of vasa previa.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a common cause of maternal death in patients with hypertensive disorders of pregnancy?

Chronic renal failure. ***Chronic renal failure*** - While chronic kidney disease can worsen during pregnancy and complicate hypertensive disorders, it is **NOT a common direct cause of maternal death** in hypertensive disorders of pregnancy. - The acute complications that arise (such as **acute kidney injury**, **eclampsia**, or **severe pre-eclampsia**) are the actual life-threatening events, rather than pre-existing chronic renal failure itself. - In contrast to the other options listed, **chronic renal failure** as a primary cause of maternal mortality is significantly less frequent in the setting of hypertensive disorders of pregnancy. *Cardiac failure* - **Pre-eclampsia** and **eclampsia** significantly increase cardiac workload and can lead to **acute heart failure**, especially with pre-existing cardiac disease or severe hypertension. - This is a **well-recognized and common cause** of maternal death in patients with severe hypertensive disorders of pregnancy. *ARDS* - **Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS)** is a severe complication of **pre-eclampsia** and **eclampsia**, often due to pulmonary edema from capillary leak and fluid overload. - It is a **critical and potentially fatal** respiratory complication representing one of the common causes of maternal death in severe hypertensive disorders. *Cerebral hemorrhage* - **Severe hypertension** in **pre-eclampsia** and **eclampsia** can lead to hemorrhagic stroke. - **Cerebral hemorrhage** is a **leading cause of maternal mortality** in women with severe hypertensive disorders of pregnancy, particularly eclampsia.

Q: What is the approximate fetal weight to placental weight ratio at 24 weeks of gestation?

2:1. ***2:1*** - The fetal weight to placental weight ratio at **24 weeks of gestation** varies across different references, with this ratio being cited in some older literature. - However, **current obstetric literature** suggests the ratio at 24 weeks is typically **higher (approximately 5:1 to 6:1)**, as the fetus (600-700g) significantly outweighs the placenta (100-120g) by this stage. - At 24 weeks, the fetus undergoes **rapid growth**, while placental growth rate has stabilized, leading to an increasing fetal-to-placental weight ratio. *1.5:1* - This ratio suggests the **fetus is only slightly heavier** than the placenta. - Such a ratio is typically observed **earlier in pregnancy (around 16-18 weeks)**, when placental mass is still relatively large compared to fetal mass. *3:1* - This ratio would indicate the fetus is **three times heavier** than the placenta. - While closer to physiologic values at 24 weeks, this still **underestimates** the typical fetal-to-placental weight ratio at this gestational age. *4:1* - This ratio suggests the fetus is **four times heavier** than the placenta. - This is **more consistent with mid-to-late second trimester** values and approaches the expected range, though current evidence suggests even higher ratios (5-6:1) at 24 weeks. **Note:** The fetal-to-placental weight ratio progressively increases throughout pregnancy, starting below 1:1 in early pregnancy and reaching 6-7:1 at term. Standard teaching suggests ratios of 5-6:1 at 24 weeks, though variation exists across references.

Q: What is the typical placenta-to-baby weight ratio at term?

1 : 6. ***1 : 6*** * The placenta-to-baby weight ratio at term is typically 1:6, meaning the placenta weighs approximately one-sixth of the baby's weight. * This ratio reflects the normal physiological balance required for adequate **fetal growth** and **nutrient exchange**. *1 : 3* * A 1:3 ratio would imply a proportionally much **larger placenta** relative to the baby's weight, which is not typical at term. * Such a ratio might be seen in cases of placental abnormalities or fetal growth restriction, but not as a normal physiological state. *1 : 4* * A 1:4 ratio indicates a **larger placenta** than physiologically normal at term, suggesting potential placental issues. * This is not the standard ratio observed in healthy pregnancies at term. *1 : 5* * While closer to the normal range than 1:3 or 1:4, a 1:5 ratio still suggests a slightly **larger placenta** than average. * The most commonly accepted healthy average at term is 1:6.

Q: Risk period for maximum fetal damage due to congenital rubella infection?

First trimester of pregnancy. ***First trimester of pregnancy*** - The **organogenesis** phase occurs predominantly in the first trimester, making the developing fetus highly vulnerable to teratogens like the **rubella virus**. - Infection during this period (especially **weeks 1-12**) leads to the highest incidence and most severe forms of **congenital rubella syndrome (CRS)**, affecting major organs such as the heart, eyes, and brain. *Second trimester of pregnancy* - While fetal infection can still occur, the risk of severe congenital anomalies significantly decreases as most major organs have already formed. - Infections in the second trimester are more likely to result in **fetal growth restriction** or later-onset defects rather than the classic CRS triad. *Third trimester of pregnancy* - Infection during the third trimester typically carries a very low risk of congenital malformations. - The primary concern during this period is **perinatal transmission** leading to neonatal infection rather than structural birth defects. *Risk is same throughout the pregnancy* - This statement is incorrect because the vulnerability of the fetus to rubella virus varies greatly depending on the stage of development, with the **first trimester** being the most critical period. - The developing organs in early pregnancy are far more susceptible to damage from viral replication and inflammation.

Q: A patient with juvenile myoclonic epilepsy on valproate comes to you at 5 months of pregnancy with a normal level II scan. What will you advise?

Continue the drug in the same dose. ***Continue the drug in the same dose*** - As the patient is already at **5 months of pregnancy** with a **normal level II scan**, the risk of major congenital malformations has largely passed. - **Maintaining seizure control** is crucial during pregnancy, as uncontrolled seizures pose significant risks to both the mother and fetus. *Change the drug* - Changing an antiepileptic drug during pregnancy, especially in the second trimester, can lead to a **loss of seizure control** and potentially expose the fetus to a new drug with unknown risks. - The period of highest risk for **major congenital malformations** from valproate exposure is during the first trimester. *Decrease the dose of the drug* - Decreasing the dose of valproate could lead to **breakthrough seizures**, which are dangerous for both the mother and the fetus. - **Plasma drug levels** often decrease in pregnancy due to increased volume of distribution and metabolism, potentially requiring a stable or even increased dose to maintain therapeutic levels. *Increase the dose of the drug* - Increasing the dose without clear clinical indication (e.g., breakthrough seizures or subtherapeutic levels) could increase the risk of **dose-dependent side effects** for both mother and fetus. - While therapeutic drug monitoring for valproate is often done in pregnancy, a **normal level II scan** does not automatically warrant a dose increase.

Q: A female presents with 6 weeks of amenorrhea, experiencing vaginal bleeding and slight abdominal pain. A urine pregnancy test is positive, and her hCG level is 2800 IU/L. A mass measuring 3 x 2.5 cm is observed on the left adnexa. She is hemodynamically stable. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

Single-dose methotrexate injection. ***Single-dose methotrexate injection*** - The patient presents with a **hemodynamically stable ectopic pregnancy**, as suggested by the positive pregnancy test, amenorrhea, vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, an hCG level of 2800 IU/L, and an adnexal mass. - A single-dose methotrexate injection is the **first-line medical management** for ectopic pregnancies in stable patients, particularly when hCG levels are typically below 5000 IU/L and the mass size is less than 4 cm (or 3.5 cm in some guidelines). *Oral methotrexate* - **Oral methotrexate** is not typically used for the treatment of ectopic pregnancy due to unpredictable absorption and less reliable therapeutic efficacy compared to intramuscular administration. - The **intramuscular route** is preferred to ensure consistent systemic exposure and effectiveness in dissolving the ectopic gestation. *Serial methotrexate + leucovorin rescue* - **Leucovorin rescue** is used to mitigate the adverse effects of high-dose methotrexate, typically in cancer chemotherapy, and is not indicated for the standard treatment of ectopic pregnancy. - Serial doses of methotrexate without leucovorin may be given if the initial single dose fails, but **leucovorin is not part of the standard initial treatment protocol** for ectopic pregnancy. *Salpingectomy* - **Salpingectomy (surgical removal of the fallopian tube)** is indicated for ectopic pregnancies that are **hemodynamically unstable**, ruptured, too large for medical management (e.g., >4 cm), or in cases where medical management with methotrexate fails or is contraindicated. - Since this patient is **hemodynamically stable** and meets the criteria for medical management, surgery is not the most appropriate initial management.

Q: A woman presents to you at 36 weeks of gestation with complaints of breathlessness and excessive abdominal distension. Fetal movements are normal. On examination, fetal parts are not easily felt and fetal heartbeat is heard but it is muffled. Her symphysis fundal height is 41 cm. Her abdomen is tense but not tender. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Polyhydramnios. ***Polyhydramnios*** - The patient's symptoms of **breathlessness**, **excessive abdominal distension**, a **symphysis fundal height of 41 cm at 36 weeks** (indicating a significantly larger than expected uterus), and **muffled fetal heart tones** are classic signs of polyhydramnios. - **Difficulty feeling fetal parts** is also consistent with excess amniotic fluid, which cushions the fetus and makes palpation harder. *Abruptio placenta* - This condition typically presents with sudden onset of **painful vaginal bleeding**, uterine tenderness, and fetal distress, none of which are described here. - While the abdomen might be tense due to uterine contractions or concealed bleeding, the lack of pain and bleeding makes this diagnosis unlikely. *Hydrocephalus of fetus* - Fetal hydrocephalus would primarily manifest as an **abnormally large fetal head** upon ultrasound, potentially leading to a higher fundal height. - However, it wouldn't directly explain the generalized excessive abdominal distension or the difficulty in feeling fetal parts due to fluid, though it could be a cause of polyhydramnios itself, it is not the most likely primary diagnosis from the given options directly addressing the symptoms. *Oligohydramnios* - This condition is characterized by **too little amniotic fluid**, which would result in a **smaller than expected symphysis fundal height** and an easily palpable fetus. - The patient's symptoms, particularly the excessive distension and high fundal height, directly contradict the features of oligohydramnios.

Question 1

Which of the following statements about MgSO4 is false?

Accepted Answer

Not used as antihypertensive

Answer

It acts as a membrane stabilizer and neuroprotector

Answer

Deep tendon reflexes are monitored for toxicity

Answer

Duration of therapy may differ between eclampsia and preeclampsia

Question 2

Which is the most common presentation in twin pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Vertex - vertex

Answer

Vertex - breech

Answer

Breech - breech

Answer

Vertex - Footling

Question 3

What is the most common cause of death in babies with vasa previa?

Accepted Answer

Fetal exsanguination

Answer

Infection

Answer

Maternal exsanguination

Answer

Both maternal and fetal exsanguination

Question 4

Which of the following is NOT a common cause of maternal death in patients with hypertensive disorders of pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Chronic renal failure

Answer

Cardiac failure

Answer

ARDS

Answer

Cerebral hemorrhage

Question 5

What is the approximate fetal weight to placental weight ratio at 24 weeks of gestation?

Accepted Answer

2:1

Answer

1.5:1

Answer

3:1

Answer

4:1

Question 6

What is the typical placenta-to-baby weight ratio at term?

Accepted Answer

1 : 6

Answer

1 : 3

Answer

1 : 4

Answer

1 : 5

Question 7

Risk period for maximum fetal damage due to congenital rubella infection?

Accepted Answer

First trimester of pregnancy

Answer

Second trimester of pregnancy

Answer

Third trimester of pregnancy

Answer

Risk is same throughout the pregnancy

Question 8

A patient with juvenile myoclonic epilepsy on valproate comes to you at 5 months of pregnancy with a normal level II scan. What will you advise?

Accepted Answer

Continue the drug in the same dose

Answer

Increase the dose of the drug

Answer

Change the drug

Answer

Decrease the dose of the drug

Question 9

A female presents with 6 weeks of amenorrhea, experiencing vaginal bleeding and slight abdominal pain. A urine pregnancy test is positive, and her hCG level is 2800 IU/L. A mass measuring 3 x 2.5 cm is observed on the left adnexa. She is hemodynamically stable. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

Accepted Answer

Single-dose methotrexate injection

Answer

Oral methotrexate

Answer

Serial methotrexate + leucovorin rescue

Answer

Salpingectomy

Question 10

A woman presents to you at 36 weeks of gestation with complaints of breathlessness and excessive abdominal distension. Fetal movements are normal. On examination, fetal parts are not easily felt and fetal heartbeat is heard but it is muffled. Her symphysis fundal height is 41 cm. Her abdomen is tense but not tender. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Polyhydramnios

Answer

Abruptio placenta

Answer

Hydrocephalus of fetus

Answer

Oligohydramnios

Maternal-Fetal Medicine — MCQs

Maternal-Fetal Medicine — MCQs

On this page

Practice by Chapter

Want unlimited practice?