Maternal-Fetal Medicine — MCQs

Maternal-Fetal Medicine Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1181: Earliest sign after IUFD is ?

A. Hyperflexion of spine
B. Overlapping of skull bones
C. Overcrowding of ribs
D. Gas in great vessel (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Gas in great vessel*** - The presence of **intravascular gas** (often in the heart or great vessels) is considered the **earliest reliable sonographic sign of fetal death**, appearing within 1-2 hours after demise. - This gas is thought to result from post-mortem **autolysis** and bacterial activity. *Overlapping of skull bones* - Known as **Spalding's sign**, this indicates skull bone collapse due to liquefaction of brain tissue and typically appears **several days (3-7 days)** after fetal demise. - It reflects a more advanced stage of fetal decomposition rather than an immediate post-mortem change. *Hyperflexion of spine* - This sign, along with abnormal fetal posture, can be seen with fetal demise but is generally evident **later than intravascular gas**, as fetal muscle tone diminishes. - It is a less specific and later indicator compared to intravascular gas. *Overcrowding of ribs* - This is an inconsistent and non-specific finding that may be observed in IUFD but does not serve as an **early diagnostic marker**. - It generally reflects changes in fetal soft tissue and skeletal structures due to maceration, occurring much later.

Question 1182: What is the most common heart disease in pregnancy?

A. Aortic Stenosis (AS)
B. Mitral Regurgitation (MR)
C. Mitral Stenosis (MS) (Correct Answer)
D. Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome

Explanation: **Mitral Stenosis (MS)** - **Mitral stenosis** is the most common form of **rheumatic heart disease**, which is the leading cause of heart disease in pregnant women. - Pregnancy exacerbates MS symptoms due to **increased blood volume** and **cardiac output**, leading to increased left atrial pressure and pulmonary congestion. *Aortic Stenosis (AS)* - While **aortic stenosis** can occur during pregnancy, it is less common than mitral stenosis as a primary cause of symptomatic heart disease. - The fixed outflow obstruction in AS can lead to complications, but its prevalence is lower compared to rheumatic MS. *Mitral Regurgitation (MR)* - **Mitral regurgitation** is generally better tolerated in pregnancy than stenotic lesions due to reduced afterload during gestation. - Although it can cause symptoms, it is not the most common heart disease encountered. *Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome* - **WPW syndrome** is an electrical conduction disorder, not a structural heart disease. - While it can manifest with arrhythmias exacerbated by pregnancy, it is not considered the most common structural heart disease in this population.

Question 1183: Which of the following conditions is NOT contraindicated in pregnancy?

A. Marfan's with aortic root dilation
B. Primary Pulmonary Hypertension
C. Eisenmenger's syndrome
D. WPW syndrome (Correct Answer)

Explanation: **WPW syndrome** - **Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome** is a condition involving an extra electrical pathway in the heart, leading to episodes of rapid heart rate. - While it can cause arrhythmias, severe complications in pregnancy are rare, and it is generally *not* considered an absolute contraindication for pregnancy. *Primary Pulmonary Hypertension* - **Primary Pulmonary Hypertension (PPH)** carries a very high maternal mortality rate (25-50%) due to the physiological changes of pregnancy on the cardiovascular system. - The increased blood volume and cardiac output in pregnancy can lead to severe decompensation and right heart failure in women with PPH. *Eisenmenger's syndrome* - **Eisenmenger's syndrome** is a severe form of pulmonary hypertension with a right-to-left shunt, associated with an extremely high maternal mortality rate (30-50%). - Pregnancy significantly increases the risk of **pulmonary hypertensive crisis**, right heart failure, and thromboembolic events, making it highly contraindicated. *Marfan's with aortic root dilation* - **Marfan's syndrome** with **aortic root dilation** is a significant contraindication due to the high risk of **aortic dissection** and rupture. - The hemodynamic stress of pregnancy, including increased blood volume and cardiac output, places immense strain on the dilated aorta, increasing the risk of life-threatening events.

Question 1184: A lady with 35 weeks of pregnancy is admitted in view of first episode of painless bout of bleeding yesterday. On examination Hb 10g%, BP 120/70 mmHg, uterus relaxed, and cephalic floating. FHS regular. Next line of management is ?

A. Induction of labor
B. Wait and watch (Correct Answer)
C. Blood transfusion
D. Cesarean section

Explanation: ***Correct: Wait and watch*** - The patient presented with **first episode of painless bleeding yesterday** which has now **stopped**, with stable vitals (BP 120/70 mmHg) and regular FHS, suggesting **placenta previa**. - At **35 weeks gestation**, with bleeding resolved and hemodynamic stability, **expectant management** is the appropriate next step to allow fetal maturity to 37-38 weeks. - The goal is to **avoid preterm delivery** complications while monitoring closely for recurrent bleeding. Patient should be kept in hospital with cross-matched blood ready. - **Ultrasound** should be performed to confirm placenta location, and delivery planned at 37-38 weeks if patient remains stable. *Incorrect: Cesarean section* - While Cesarean section is the **definitive mode of delivery** for placenta previa, it is not indicated immediately in this stable patient at 35 weeks. - Indications for emergency Cesarean would include: **active ongoing bleeding**, maternal or fetal compromise, or reaching 37-38 weeks gestation. - Performing Cesarean at 35 weeks would result in unnecessary **preterm delivery complications** when expectant management is safe. *Incorrect: Induction of labor* - **Absolutely contraindicated** in suspected placenta previa due to high risk of torrential hemorrhage as cervix dilates. - Vaginal delivery is not attempted when placenta previa is suspected. *Incorrect: Blood transfusion* - Hemoglobin of **10g%** indicates mild anemia but does not require immediate transfusion in a stable patient. - Blood should be **cross-matched and kept ready** for emergency use, but transfusion is indicated only if bleeding recurs with significant drop in hemoglobin or hemodynamic instability.

Question 1185: Patient with 3 months amenorrhoea, c/o hyperemesis and vaginal bleeding since one month. O/E=uterus 16 weeks with absent fetal heart sound. The diagnosis is ?

A. Ectopic pregnancy
B. Abruptio placentae
C. Molar pregnancy (Correct Answer)
D. Intrauterine fetal death (IUFD)

Explanation: ***Molar pregnancy*** - This diagnosis aligns with the presence of **hyperemesis**, **vaginal bleeding**, and a **uterus size larger than expected for gestational age** (16 weeks for 3 months amenorrhoea) with an **absent fetal heart sound**. - **Hyperemesis** is often pronounced due to very high hCG levels produced by the molar tissue. - The **size-dates discrepancy** (uterus larger than expected) is a pathognomonic feature of molar pregnancy. *Ectopic pregnancy* - While it can cause **vaginal bleeding** and **amenorrhoea**, the uterus size is typically **normal or smaller** than expected for gestational age, not 16 weeks. - **Fetal heart sounds** would also be absent but the marked uterine enlargement is the key differentiating factor. *Abruptio placentae* - This typically occurs in the **later stages of pregnancy** (second half or third trimester) and presents with painful vaginal bleeding and uterine tenderness. - The symptoms described, particularly the uterus size discrepancy and hyperemesis in early pregnancy, do not fit abruptio placentae. *Intrauterine fetal death (IUFD)* - While IUFD is characterized by an **absent fetal heart sound** and can occur with spotting, the uterine size would typically be **appropriate for gestational age or smaller**, not significantly larger. - IUFD also does not explain the presence of severe hyperemesis or the size-dates discrepancy.

Question 1186: Most common organism grown in urine culture of a pregnant woman with asymptomatic bacteriuria?

A. E. coli (Correct Answer)
B. Staph aureus
C. Pseudomonas
D. Proteus

Explanation: ***E. coli*** - **_E. coli_** is the most prevalent uropathogen due to its ability to adhere to uroepithelial cells and its common presence in the perianal flora. - It accounts for approximately **80% of all community-acquired urinary tract infections (UTIs)**, including asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women. *Staph aureus* - **_Staphylococcus aureus_** is an uncommon cause of UTIs and is typically associated with **hematogenous spread** in cases of bacteremia. - It is rarely isolated in asymptomatic bacteriuria and would raise suspicion for a systemic infection if found in urine. *Pseudomonas* - **_Pseudomonas aeruginosa_** is generally associated with **nosocomial infections**, catheter-associated UTIs, or patients with structural urinary tract abnormalities or prolonged antibiotic use. - It is not a common cause of asymptomatic bacteriuria in otherwise healthy pregnant women. *Proteus* - **_Proteus_ species**, particularly **_Proteus mirabilis_**, are known for their ability to produce **urease**, which can lead to alkaline urine and the formation of struvite stones. - While they can cause UTIs, they are less common than _E. coli_ in asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women.

Question 1187: What is the earliest sign of fetal death?

A. Adipocere formation
B. Absence of fetal movements
C. Spalding sign
D. Absence of fetal heart sounds (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Absence of fetal heart sounds*** - **Absence of fetal heart sounds** detected by **Doppler ultrasound** or **real-time ultrasound** is the **earliest and most definitive sign** of fetal death. - Cardiac activity ceases **immediately at the moment of fetal demise**, making this the **primary diagnostic criterion** for intrauterine fetal death. - **Ultrasound showing absent cardiac activity** is the gold standard for confirming fetal death and can detect it within minutes to hours. *Absence of fetal movements* - Absence of fetal movements is often the **first maternal perception** of potential fetal demise, typically noticed within hours to days. - However, it is **subjective and non-specific**, as fetal movements can naturally decrease during sleep cycles or may be less perceptible in some pregnancies. - While important for prompting further evaluation, it is not as definitive as absent cardiac activity on ultrasound. *Spalding sign* - The **Spalding sign** (overlapping of fetal skull bones) is a **late radiological sign** of fetal death that appears **1-2 weeks post-mortem**. - It occurs due to **brain liquefaction and decomposition**, causing collapse of the cranial vault and overlapping of skull sutures. - This is a **confirmatory sign of prolonged fetal demise**, not an early indicator. *Adipocere formation* - **Adipocere formation** (saponification of soft tissues) is a **very late post-mortem change** occurring **weeks to months** after death. - It represents advanced decomposition in a moist environment and is rarely seen in modern obstetric practice due to early detection and intervention. - This is the latest sign among all the options listed.

Question 1188: All of the following are causes of oligohydramnios except:

A. Postmaturity
B. Maternal dehydration
C. IUGR
D. Labetalol (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Labetalol*** - **Labetalol** is a beta-blocker commonly used to treat **hypertension in pregnancy** and is generally considered safe. - It does not cause oligohydramnios; in fact, there is some evidence that it may slightly increase **amniotic fluid volume** by improving placental perfusion. *IUGR* - **Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)** leads to shunting of blood flow away from the kidneys to vital organs, reducing **fetal urine production**, a major contributor to amniotic fluid. - Reduced fetal urine output directly results in decreased **amniotic fluid volume**, causing oligohydramnios. *Postmaturity* - In **post-term pregnancies** (gestation beyond 40 weeks), there is a physiological decline in **amniotic fluid volume** due to aging placenta and reduced fetal urine output. - This natural reduction in fluid production often leads to **oligohydramnios** in postmature fetuses. *Maternal dehydration* - **Maternal dehydration** can reduce **maternal blood volume** and placental perfusion, consequently affecting **fetal fluid balance** and urine production. - This reduced fluid availability can diminish the amount of **amniotic fluid**, contributing to oligohydramnios.

Question 1189: Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding complete hydatidiform mole?

A. Diffuse trophoblastic hyperplasia
B. Triploid (Correct Answer)
C. Absence of fetal parts
D. Beta HCG > 50,000

Explanation: ***Triploid*** - A complete hydatidiform mole is typically **diploid** (with all chromosomes derived from the father), not triploid [1]. - Triploidy is associated with **partial moles**, where there is fetal tissue present, which is not the case in a complete mole [1]. *Beta HCG > 50,000* - It is common in complete hydatidiform moles to have **elevated beta HCG levels**, often greater than 50,000 [1]. - High levels of beta HCG are indicative of abnormal placental development, characteristic of a complete mole [1]. *Absence of fetal parts* - Complete hydatidiform moles typically show **no development of fetal tissue**, aligning with the absence of fetal parts [1]. - This is a defining feature that differentiates complete moles from partial moles, which may have some fetal development [1]. *Diffuse trophoblastic hyperplasia* - **Diffuse trophoblastic hyperplasia** is associated with complete moles, characterized by abnormal proliferation of trophoblasts [1]. - This hyperplasia leads to the distinctive hydropic changes seen in the placental tissue in a complete mole [1]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Female Genital Tract, pp. 1042-1046.

Question 1190: Which of the following statements is false regarding the management of intrauterine fetal death?

A. In 50% of cases spontaneous expulsion occurs in 2 weeks
B. Fibrinogen levels should be checked weekly (Correct Answer)
C. Delivery by medical induction is preferred if spontaneous expulsion does not occur
D. Caesarian section has limited place in management of intrauterine fetal death

Explanation: ***Fibrinogen levels should be checked weekly*** - This statement is considered **false** or **questionable** in the context of routine IUFD management. - While coagulation monitoring is important, **routine weekly fibrinogen checks** are not universally recommended for all cases of IUFD. - The risk of **consumptive coagulopathy (DIC)** becomes significant only after **3-4 weeks** of retaining a dead fetus. - Most guidelines recommend coagulation screening at diagnosis and then **periodic monitoring** if conservative management extends beyond 2-3 weeks, rather than mandatory weekly checks from the outset. - The frequency depends on clinical circumstances, gestational age, and institutional protocols. *In 50% of cases spontaneous expulsion occurs in 2 weeks* - This statement is **true**. Approximately **50-80%** of women will spontaneously go into labor within **2-3 weeks** after IUFD. - Most women prefer to await spontaneous labor initially, but medical induction is offered if this does not occur within a reasonable timeframe. *Delivery by medical induction is preferred if spontaneous expulsion does not occur* - This statement is **true**. **Medical induction of labor** is the preferred management when spontaneous expulsion does not occur. - Common induction agents include **misoprostol**, **mifepristone + misoprostol**, or **prostaglandin E2**. - Early delivery (within 1-2 weeks) minimizes maternal psychological distress and reduces the risk of coagulopathy. *Caesarian section has limited place in management of intrauterine fetal death* - This statement is **true**. **Cesarean delivery** is generally **avoided** in IUFD management because it carries maternal surgical risks without fetal benefit. - Vaginal delivery is preferred whenever possible. - C-section is reserved only for specific **obstetric indications** such as **placenta previa**, **previous classical cesarean scar**, or other contraindications to labor that exist regardless of fetal status.

Practice by Chapter

Fetal Assessment Techniques

Practice Questions

Hypertensive Disorders in Pregnancy

Practice Questions

Intrauterine Growth Restriction

Practice Questions

Multiple Gestation

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Rh Isoimmunization and Other Blood Group Incompatibilities

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Intrauterine Fetal Therapy

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Prenatal Diagnosis and Genetic Counseling

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Placental Abnormalities

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Preterm Labor and Delivery

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Management of Medical Disorders in Pregnancy

Practice Questions

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