Maternal-Fetal Medicine — MCQs

A primigravida with 36 weeks of pregnancy is in labor with 3 cm dilatation and minimal uterine contraction. On rupture of membranes, fresh bleeding is noted with late fetal deceleration up to 50 beats/min. The patient was taken for LSCS but fetus could not be saved. No abruptio or placenta previa was seen. The likely diagnosis is ?

Q1177

Modified biophysical profile is:

Q1178

With reference to fetal heart rate, a nonstress test is considered reactive when?

Q1179

In the context of fetal hypoxia, which parameter of the Biophysical Profile (BPP) is typically affected last?

Q1180

A 30-year-old woman is 14 weeks pregnant and has a history of two painless deliveries at 16 weeks. What is the next line of management?

Maternal-Fetal Medicine Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1171: At what weeks of gestation does the second wave of trophoblastic invasion occur?

A. 10-12 weeks
B. 16-20 weeks
C. 8-11 weeks
D. 12-15 weeks (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***12-15 weeks*** - The **second wave of trophoblastic invasion** is a crucial event for proper placental development, occurring between **12 and 15 weeks of gestation**. - During this phase, **cytotrophoblast cells** invade the **spiral arteries** in the decidua and inner myometrium, replacing the smooth muscle and elastic tissue with fibrinoid material. *8-11 weeks* - This period primarily encompasses the **first wave of trophoblastic invasion**, where **cytotrophoblast cells** invade the decidual segments of the spiral arteries. - Inadequate first-wave invasion is associated with early pregnancy complications, but the full second wave has not yet occurred. *10-12 weeks* - While this period overlaps with the later part of the first wave and the very beginning of the second, it is not the primary window for the **complete second wave of trophoblastic invasion**. - The most significant remodelling of the deeper spiral arteries occurs slightly later in gestation. *16-20 weeks* - By this gestational stage, the **second wave of trophoblastic invasion** should have largely been completed, and the placental circulation is well-established. - Inadequate remodelling of the spiral arteries by this point is strongly associated with later pregnancy complications like **preeclampsia** and **intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)**.

Question 1172: Which of the following is NOT a feature of mild or non-severe pre-eclampsia?

A. Diastolic BP <100 mm Hg
B. Systolic BP< 160 mm Hg
C. Premonitory symptoms present (Correct Answer)
D. Mild IUGR

Explanation: ***Premonitory symptoms present*** - The **presence of premonitory symptoms** (such as **severe headache**, **visual disturbances**, **epigastric pain**, or **altered mental status**) is a defining feature of **severe pre-eclampsia**, NOT mild or non-severe pre-eclampsia. - These symptoms indicate impending eclampsia or serious end-organ involvement, which classifies the condition as severe. - This is the correct answer as it is NOT a feature of mild pre-eclampsia. *Diastolic BP <100 mm Hg* - In mild pre-eclampsia, the **diastolic blood pressure** is typically **elevated** (≥90 mmHg) but remains **below 110 mmHg**. - This is a defining characteristic of mild pre-eclampsia, differentiating it from severe pre-eclampsia where diastolic BP is ≥110 mmHg. - This IS a feature of mild pre-eclampsia. *Systolic BP <160 mm Hg* - A **systolic blood pressure** below **160 mmHg** (but ≥140 mmHg) is consistent with mild or non-severe pre-eclampsia. - Severe pre-eclampsia is characterized by a systolic BP of ≥160 mmHg, making this range indicative of milder disease. - This IS a feature of mild pre-eclampsia. *Mild IUGR* - **Mild intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)** can occur in mild pre-eclampsia due to **placental insufficiency**. - While more severe IUGR is associated with severe pre-eclampsia, mild IUGR can be seen in non-severe cases. - This IS a feature that can occur in mild pre-eclampsia.

Question 1173: Which of the following parameters is most critical to monitor in a patient with pre-eclampsia?

A. Proteinuria
B. Blood pressure (Correct Answer)
C. Platelet count
D. Liver function tests (LFTs)

Explanation: ***Blood pressure*** - **Hypertension** is the hallmark of pre-eclampsia and directly correlates with the severity of the disease and the risk of complications such as **eclampsia** and **HELLP syndrome**. - Precise and frequent monitoring of blood pressure guides treatment decisions, including the initiation or adjustment of **antihypertensive medications**. *Proteinuria* - While **proteinuria** is a diagnostic criterion for pre-eclampsia, it is not the most critical parameter for ongoing management and predicting immediate adverse outcomes. - The quantity of proteinuria does not reliably predict the severity of maternal or fetal complications. *Platelet count* - **Thrombocytopenia** can occur in severe pre-eclampsia and **HELLP syndrome**, indicating disease progression. - While important for assessing coagulation status, it is a secondary monitoring parameter compared to blood pressure, which is central to diagnosis and acute management. *Liver function tests (LFTs)* - Elevated **LFTs** signify liver involvement, particularly in severe pre-eclampsia and **HELLP syndrome**. - Monitoring LFTs helps in assessing organ damage but is less immediate for day-to-day management decisions than blood pressure, which is the primary driver of intervention.

Question 1174: A 28-year-old pregnant woman presents with severe hypertension and proteinuria. What is the most appropriate initial management?

A. Emergency cesarean section
B. Induction of labor if stable
C. Anticonvulsant and antihypertensive therapy (Correct Answer)
D. Observation and monitoring

Explanation: ***Anticonvulsant and antihypertensive therapy*** - The patient presents with **severe preeclampsia** (hypertension and proteinuria in pregnancy), which carries a risk of seizures (**eclampsia**). - **Magnesium sulfate** is the first-line anticonvulsant for the prevention and treatment of eclamptic seizures, and **antihypertensive agents** (e.g., labetalol, hydralazine) are necessary to control blood pressure and prevent maternal complications. *Emergency cesarean section* - An emergency cesarean section is indicated for **fetal distress**, **maternal instability** not responsive to conservative management, or **failed induction of labor**. - Without information about fetal compromise or maternal organ dysfunction, immediate surgical delivery is not the initial step. *Induction of labor if stable* - Induction of labor is a consideration for delivery in cases of **preeclampsia at term** or when expectant management is no longer safe. - However, the immediate priority in severe preeclampsia is to stabilize the mother with **anticonvulsant and antihypertensive therapy** first. *Observation and monitoring* - **Close monitoring** is essential in preeclampsia, but simply observing without active intervention in severe cases would be irresponsible. - Severe hypertension and proteinuria require **active management** to prevent progression to eclampsia or other severe maternal and fetal complications.

Question 1175: HCG levels at which Expectant management of Ectopic pregnancy can be done :

A. 10000 IU/L
B. 5000 IU/L
C. 1000 IU/L (Correct Answer)
D. 2500 IU/L

Explanation: ***1000 IU/L*** - Expectant management for ectopic pregnancy is most appropriate when **hCG levels are < 1000-1500 IU/L and declining**. - This approach is suitable for **hemodynamically stable** patients with no signs of rupture, minimal symptoms, and a small ectopic pregnancy on ultrasound. - The key requirement is that **hCG levels must be declining**, indicating spontaneous resolution. - **1000 IU/L** represents the safest and most widely accepted threshold for expectant management. *2500 IU/L* - An hCG level of **2500 IU/L** is generally **too high** for expectant management of ectopic pregnancy. - Most guidelines recommend expectant management only when hCG is **< 1000-1500 IU/L** (some extend to < 2000 IU/L). - At 2500 IU/L, the risk of **rupture** is significantly higher, and active intervention (medical or surgical) is typically indicated. *10000 IU/L* - An hCG level of **10,000 IU/L** is far too high for expectant management. - Such elevated levels indicate a **larger, active ectopic pregnancy** with high rupture risk. - This level typically requires **immediate medical (methotrexate) or surgical intervention**. *5000 IU/L* - An hCG level of **5000 IU/L** is well above the threshold for expectant management. - At this level, **medical treatment with methotrexate or surgical management** is indicated. - The risk of rupture and treatment failure with conservative approaches is too high for expectant management.

Question 1176: A primigravida with 36 weeks of pregnancy is in labor with 3 cm dilatation and minimal uterine contraction. On rupture of membranes, fresh bleeding is noted with late fetal deceleration up to 50 beats/min. The patient was taken for LSCS but fetus could not be saved. No abruptio or placenta previa was seen. The likely diagnosis is ?

A. Placenta previa
B. Revealed abruptio
C. Circumvallate placenta
D. Vasa previa (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Vasa previa*** - The sudden onset of **painless vaginal bleeding** upon membrane rupture, combined with **fetal heart rate deceleration** (bradycardia), is highly suggestive of **vasa previa**. This condition involves fetal vessels coursing within the membranes over the cervical os, unprotected by placental tissue or Wharton's jelly, making them prone to rupture. - The **fetal origin of the bleeding** (leading to fetal hypovolemia and distress) and the absence of placental complications like abruptio or previa further support this diagnosis. *Placenta previa* - This condition involves the **placenta covering the cervical os**, leading to painless bright red bleeding, especially in the third trimester. - However, the question explicitly states "No abruptio or placenta previa was seen," directly ruling out this diagnosis. *Revealed abruptio* - **Placental abruption** is the premature detachment of the placenta, typically causing **painful vaginal bleeding**, uterine tenderness, and often hypertonic contractions. - The scenario describes **minimal uterine contraction** and a lack of overt abdominal pain, and explicitly states "No abruptio or placenta previa was seen," making abruptio unlikely. *Circumvallate placenta* - A **circumvallate placenta** has a folded double layer of amnion and chorion at its margin, which can cause bleeding in pregnancy due to detachment of the rolled margin. - While it can cause bleeding, it typically doesn't present with the acute, severe fetal distress (late decelerations with bradycardia) immediately following membrane rupture that indicates direct fetal blood loss, unlike vasa previa.

Question 1177: Modified biophysical profile is:

A. NST + Fetal Tone
B. Fetal Tone + AFI
C. NST + AFI (Correct Answer)
D. NST + Fetal Tone + AFI

Explanation: ***Correct Answer: NST + AFI*** - The **modified biophysical profile (mBPP)** consists of a **nonstress test (NST)** and an **amniotic fluid index (AFI)**. - This combination is used to evaluate fetal well-being, with the NST assessing **acute hypoxia** and the AFI reflecting **chronic placental function**. - The mBPP is a **simplified version** of the full biophysical profile, designed for efficient antepartum fetal surveillance. *Incorrect: NST + Fetal Tone* - While both are components of the **full biophysical profile (BPP)**, this specific combination does not define the modified biophysical profile. - **Fetal tone** (flexion/extension of extremities) is a component of the full BPP but is omitted in the modified version to streamline the assessment. *Incorrect: Fetal Tone + AFI* - This combination is not a recognized standard for evaluating fetal well-being. - A **nonstress test (NST)** is a crucial component for assessing **acute fetal oxygenation** and is always included in the modified biophysical profile. *Incorrect: NST + Fetal Tone + AFI* - This combination represents three of the five components of the **full biophysical profile**, which also includes **fetal breathing** and **gross body movements**. - The **modified biophysical profile** specifically simplifies this by including only the **NST** and **AFI**.

Question 1178: With reference to fetal heart rate, a nonstress test is considered reactive when?

A. Two fetal heart rate accelerations are noted in 20 minutes (Correct Answer)
B. One fetal heart rate acceleration is noted in 20 minutes
C. Two fetal heart rate accelerations are noted in 10 minutes
D. Three fetal heart rate accelerations are noted in 30 minutes

Explanation: **Two fetal heart rate accelerations are noted in 20 minutes** - A **nonstress test (NST)** is considered reactive when there are at least two accelerations of the fetal heart rate within a 20-minute period. - An **acceleration** is defined as an increase in fetal heart rate of at least 15 beats per minute above baseline, lasting for at least 15 seconds (for gestations ≥32 weeks). - This is the **standard definition** of a reactive NST and indicates adequate fetal well-being. *One fetal heart rate acceleration is noted in 20 minutes* - While an acceleration is a positive sign, a **reactive NST** specifically requires at least two accelerations within the 20-minute timeframe. - A single acceleration within 20 minutes would render the NST **non-reactive**, requiring further evaluation or extended monitoring up to 40 minutes. *Two fetal heart rate accelerations are noted in 10 minutes* - While two accelerations occurring in 10 minutes is clinically reassuring and technically occurs within 20 minutes, the **standard definition** for reporting NST reactivity specifically states "two or more accelerations **in** 20 minutes." - The 20-minute observation period is the established timeframe for NST assessment, not 10 minutes. - This option tests knowledge of the precise standard criteria rather than clinical interpretation. *Three fetal heart rate accelerations are noted in 30 minutes* - The standard definition for a **reactive NST** requires assessment within a **20-minute window**, not 30 minutes. - While three accelerations indicate fetal well-being, this exceeds the standard observation period and does not meet the formal definition of a reactive NST within the specified timeframe. - An NST is typically extended to 40 minutes if non-reactive at 20 minutes, but the definition of reactivity remains based on the 20-minute criterion.

Question 1179: In the context of fetal hypoxia, which parameter of the Biophysical Profile (BPP) is typically affected last?

A. Fetal tone (Correct Answer)
B. Fetal breathing movements
C. Fetal movements
D. Non-stress test (NST)

Explanation: ***Fetal tone*** - **Fetal tone** is the last biophysical parameter to be affected by worsening fetal hypoxia as it is controlled by the **lower brainstem and spinal cord**, which are the most primitive centers and spared until late decompensation. - This parameter requires significant and prolonged oxygen deprivation to be compromised, indicating severe fetal compromise. *Fetal breathing movements* - **Fetal breathing movements** are affected relatively early in fetal hypoxia, as they are controlled by the **upper brainstem (pons)** and thus more sensitive to oxygen deprivation. - Absence or decreased frequency of these movements can be an early sign of impending hypoxia. *Fetal movements* - **Gross fetal body movements** are also affected early by oxygen deprivation, as they are controlled by the fetal **cerebral cortex** and subcortical centers. - A reduction in fetal movements often signifies the fetus is conserving energy due to oxygen scarcity. *Non-stress test (NST)* - The **non-stress test (NST)**, which assesses **fetal heart rate accelerations** in response to movement, is typically the *first* parameter to be affected by hypoxia. - Loss of fetal heart rate accelerations occurs early because the **autonomic nervous system and cortical centers**, which control these responses, are highly sensitive to reduced oxygen levels.

Question 1180: A 30-year-old woman is 14 weeks pregnant and has a history of two painless deliveries at 16 weeks. What is the next line of management?

A. Cervical encerclage
B. Evaluation for diabetes mellitus and thyroid disorders
C. Cervical length assessment (Correct Answer)
D. Tocolytics

Explanation: ***Cervical length assessment*** - With a history of **two painless preterm deliveries at 16 weeks**, the patient is at high risk for **cervical insufficiency** (incompetent cervix). - While this history may warrant **history-indicated cerclage**, many current protocols recommend **cervical length assessment** via transvaginal ultrasound as the next step to objectively evaluate cervical status and guide management decisions. - An **ultrasound-indicated approach** allows for selective cerclage placement if cervical shortening is documented, avoiding unnecessary procedures in some cases. - Cervical length <25 mm before 24 weeks indicates need for intervention. *Cervical encerclage* - **Prophylactic cerclage** (history-indicated) is an evidence-based option for women with ≥2 prior spontaneous second-trimester losses, and can be placed at 12-14 weeks. - However, the **ultrasound-indicated approach** (assess first, then place cerclage if indicated) is also widely accepted and may prevent unnecessary cerclage in patients with adequate cervical length. - Both approaches are supported by evidence; the question favors assessment first. *Evaluation for diabetes mellitus and thyroid disorders* - While **diabetes mellitus** and **thyroid disorders** can contribute to pregnancy complications, they are not the primary cause of recurrent **painless mid-trimester losses**. - The clinical presentation strongly suggests **cervical insufficiency**, which requires specific cervical evaluation and management. - Medical screening is not the most immediate priority in this scenario. *Tocolytics* - **Tocolytics** are used to suppress **preterm labor contractions**. - This patient's history of **painless deliveries** indicates cervical insufficiency rather than preterm labor with contractions, making tocolytics inappropriate for prevention.

Practice by Chapter

Fetal Assessment Techniques

Practice Questions

Hypertensive Disorders in Pregnancy

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Intrauterine Growth Restriction

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Multiple Gestation

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Rh Isoimmunization and Other Blood Group Incompatibilities

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Intrauterine Fetal Therapy

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Prenatal Diagnosis and Genetic Counseling

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Placental Abnormalities

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Preterm Labor and Delivery

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Management of Medical Disorders in Pregnancy

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