Maternal-Fetal Medicine Practice Questions

Q: A 35-year-old pregnant woman at 36 weeks of gestation presents with pruritus and jaundice. What is the most appropriate investigation?

Bile acids measurement. ***Bile acids measurement*** - Elevated **serum bile acids** are the hallmark of **intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy (ICP)**, which is strongly suggested by the patient's symptoms of pruritus and jaundice in late pregnancy. - This test directly measures the substance pathologically elevated in ICP, guiding diagnosis and management due to the associated risks to the fetus. *Liver function tests* - While **liver function tests (LFTs)** like **ALT** and **AST** are often abnormal in ICP (elevated), they are not as specific as bile acid levels for diagnosing ICP and can be elevated in various other liver conditions. - LFTs alone might not confirm the diagnosis of ICP, especially in cases where **pruritus** is the main symptom, and other liver enzymes are only mildly deranged. *Ultrasound of liver* - A **liver ultrasound** is useful for ruling out **extrahepatic cholestasis** (e.g., gallstones obstructing the bile duct) but will typically be normal in **intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy** itself. - It does not directly assess the biochemical markers indicative of ICP, which is primarily a functional disorder of bile acid transport. *Serum bilirubin* - While **elevated serum bilirubin** contributes to the **jaundice** observed in this patient, it is a non-specific finding that indicates impaired bile flow or liver dysfunction from various causes. - **Bilirubin** levels do not provide the specific diagnostic confirmation for **intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy** that **bile acid levels** do, nor do they reflect the severity or guide treatment for ICP as effectively.

Q: What is the most common complication of Zika virus infection in pregnant women?

Microcephaly in the newborn. ***Microcephaly in the newborn*** - **Microcephaly** is the most significant and characteristic neurological birth defect strongly linked to **Zika virus infection** during pregnancy. - The virus primarily targets developing brain cells, leading to severe brain underdevelopment and a smaller-than-normal head circumference in the fetus. - Microcephaly is the hallmark feature of **congenital Zika syndrome**, making it the most recognized complication. *Gestational diabetes* - **Gestational diabetes** is a metabolic disorder where pregnant women develop high blood sugar levels due to hormonal changes and insulin resistance. - It is not directly caused by viral infections like Zika virus. *Spontaneous abortion* - While Zika infection can increase the risk of pregnancy loss and adverse pregnancy outcomes, **spontaneous abortion** is not the most characteristic complication. - **Microcephaly** and other structural brain abnormalities are the defining features of congenital Zika syndrome and are more specifically documented. *Pre-eclampsia* - **Pre-eclampsia** is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy characterized by high blood pressure and organ damage. - It has no direct causal link to **Zika virus infection**.

Q: Which condition is associated with an increased risk of developing placenta accreta?

Prior cesarean delivery. ***Prior cesarean delivery*** - A previous **cesarean delivery** significantly increases the risk of placenta accreta due to scarring of the uterine wall, which can lead to abnormal placental implantation. - The scar tissue from a C-section can compromise the integrity of the decidua basalis, allowing trophoblasts to invade deeper into the myometrium. *Multiparity* - While **multiparity** can be a risk factor for some placental complications (e.g., placenta previa), it is less directly or strongly associated with placenta accreta compared to a prior cesarean delivery. - The primary mechanism of increased accreta risk is uterine scarring, which is not inherently caused by multiple pregnancies alone. *Maternal anemia* - **Maternal anemia** is a common pregnancy complication but does not independently increase the risk of placenta accreta. - It is often managed with iron supplementation and is more associated with adverse neonatal outcomes or the need for blood transfusions. *Advanced maternal age* - **Advanced maternal age** (typically over 35 years) is a risk factor for various pregnancy complications, including gestational hypertension, diabetes, and chromosomal abnormalities. - However, its direct association with placenta accreta is weaker and often confounded by other factors like increased rates of assisted reproductive technology or prior uterine surgeries in older mothers.

Q: What is the most common type of ovarian tumor that occurs during pregnancy?

Dermoid cyst. ***Dermoid cyst*** - **Dermoid cysts**, also known as mature cystic teratomas, are the most common type of **germ cell tumor** and are frequently found during pregnancy due to their benign nature and common occurrence in reproductive-aged women. - They are composed of **multiple tissue types** (e.g., skin, hair, teeth, bone) derived from all three germ layers, and can cause symptoms like pelvic pain or be incidentally discovered during routine prenatal imaging. *Serous cystadenoma* - While **serous cystadenomas** are common **epithelial ovarian tumors**, they are not as prevalent as dermoid cysts during pregnancy. - They are typically benign and filled with clear, watery fluid, often presenting as unilocular cysts. *Mucinous cystadenoma* - **Mucinous cystadenomas** are another type of **epithelial ovarian tumor** filled with thick, gelatinous fluid, but are less common than dermoid cysts in pregnant women. - They can grow to be very large, occasionally causing abdominal distension and discomfort. *Endometrioma* - **Endometriomas** are a type of ovarian cyst formed by **endometriosis**, where endometrial-like tissue grows on the ovary. - While they can be found in women of reproductive age, they are generally less common than dermoid cysts as incidentally discovered ovarian masses during pregnancy.

Q: Which condition is characterized by high levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) and a 'snowstorm' pattern on ultrasound?

Complete hydatidiform mole. ***Complete hydatidiform mole*** - This condition is characterized by **abnormally high levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)** due to the proliferation of trophoblastic tissue. - The classic ultrasound finding is a uterine cavity filled with numerous small cysts, creating a distinctive **"snowstorm" or "grape-like cluster" appearance** without a fetal pole or amniotic sac. *Partial hydatidiform mole* - While it also involves elevated hCG and abnormal placental tissue, the hCG levels are typically **lower than in a complete mole** and often fall within the range of a normal pregnancy. - Ultrasound may show a **fetal pole (often malformed)** and amniotic sac, along with focal hydropic villi, which does not present as a classic "snowstorm" pattern. *Ectopic pregnancy* - In an ectopic pregnancy, hCG levels are usually **elevated but often lower than expected for gestational age** and may plateau or rise slowly, not reaching the extremely high levels seen in a complete mole. - Ultrasound characteristically shows an **empty uterus** and often an **adnexal mass** (gestational sac or complex mass in the fallopian tube), not a "snowstorm" appearance within the uterine cavity. *Missed abortion* - In a missed abortion, hCG levels typically **decline or plateau** after initial elevation as the pregnancy is no longer viable. - Ultrasound findings include a **gestational sac with no fetal heart activity** or a fetal pole that is smaller than expected for gestational age, without the proliferative molar tissue or "snowstorm" pattern.

Q: A 29-year-old G2P1 woman at 36 weeks of gestation presents with severe preeclampsia. Her blood pressure is 170/110 mmHg despite antihypertensive treatment, and she is experiencing a headache and visual disturbances. What is the next step in management?

Immediate induction of labor or cesarean delivery. ***Immediate induction of labor or cesarean delivery*** - This patient presents with **severe preeclampsia** at 36 weeks of gestation with symptoms of headache and visual disturbances, which are signs of **end-organ damage** and impending eclampsia. - At this gestational age (≥ 34 weeks), **delivery is the definitive treatment** for severe preeclampsia to prevent maternal and fetal complications, even if the blood pressure is not perfectly controlled, as maternal stability is paramount. *Continue antihypertensive treatment and monitor closely* - While **antihypertensives** are important for blood pressure control, simply continuing and monitoring without definitive action is insufficient for severe preeclampsia with signs of end-organ involvement at 36 weeks. - This approach risks progression to **eclampsia, stroke**, or other severe maternal and fetal morbidities. *Administer corticosteroids and delay delivery* - **Corticosteroids** (e.g., betamethasone or dexamethasone) are administered to promote fetal lung maturity, typically for gestations **less than 34 weeks**. - At 36 weeks, the benefits of corticosteroids are minimal, and delaying delivery in severe preeclampsia increases maternal risk unnecessarily. *Increase the dose of antihypertensive medications* - While optimizing **blood pressure control** is crucial, simply increasing antihypertensive medications does not address the underlying pathology of preeclampsia. - In cases of severe preeclampsia with maternal symptoms at **36 weeks**, delivery is indicated regardless of optimal blood pressure control.

Q: A 24-year-old woman, G1P0, at 32 weeks of gestation presents with a sudden onset of severe, localized abdominal pain and vaginal spotting. Examination reveals a tender, rigid abdomen. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Placental abruption. ***Placental abruption*** - The sudden onset of **severe, localized abdominal pain**, **vaginal spotting**, and a **tender, rigid abdomen** in a pregnant woman at 32 weeks gestation are classic signs of placental abruption. - This condition involves the **premature separation of the placenta** from the uterine wall, leading to bleeding and uterine hypertonus. *Uterine rupture* - While it also presents with sudden severe pain, a **uterus rupture** often leads to signs of maternal shock and fetal distress, and the abdomen might be soft or have palpable fetal parts, which is not described. - It usually occurs in women with a history of **previous uterine surgery or trauma**, and there is no such history given. *Labor onset* - **Labor onset** typically involves rhythmic contractions and progressive cervical changes, which are usually not associated with a continuously rigid and tender abdomen between contractions. - Vaginal bleeding in labor is usually minimal and different from the spotting associated with abruption. *Urinary tract infection* - A **urinary tract infection (UTI)** would present with symptoms such as dysuria, urgency, frequency, and suprapubic discomfort; it would not cause severe, localized abdominal pain with a rigid abdomen. - A UTI is usually confirmed by urinalysis and culture, which would not explain the described acute abdominal findings.

Q: Which medication is considered the first-line treatment for managing hypertension during pregnancy?

Methyldopa. ***Methyldopa*** - **Methyldopa** is considered a **first-line treatment for chronic hypertension during pregnancy** and has the **longest safety record** with extensive data on maternal and fetal outcomes. - It works as a central alpha-2 adrenergic agonist, reducing sympathetic outflow and thereby **lowering blood pressure** without compromising uteroplacental blood flow. - While **labetalol** and **nifedipine** are also considered first-line agents, **methyldopa** is often preferred when a **long-term oral agent** is needed, particularly in resource-limited settings, and is specifically recommended by WHO guidelines. *ACE inhibitors* - **ACE inhibitors** are **absolutely contraindicated** during pregnancy, especially in the second and third trimesters, due to their association with **fetal renal abnormalities**, oligohydramnios, and **renal dysgenesis**. - Their use can lead to **fetal growth restriction**, **pulmonary hypoplasia**, **skull hypoplasia**, and **fetal/neonatal death**. *Beta-blockers* - **Labetalol** (a selective beta-blocker) is also considered a **first-line agent** for hypertension in pregnancy alongside methyldopa and is often preferred for acute management or when rapid control is needed. - However, in the context of chronic hypertension requiring long-term oral therapy, **methyldopa** has the most extensive safety data spanning decades. - Atenolol should be avoided due to associations with **fetal growth restriction**. *Calcium channel blockers* - **Nifedipine** (long-acting) is another **first-line option** for hypertension in pregnancy, particularly useful for **acute severe hypertension** and as an alternative when methyldopa is not tolerated. - While equally effective, it may be considered an **alternative first-line agent** rather than the primary choice for chronic management in some guidelines.

Question 1

A 35-year-old pregnant woman at 36 weeks of gestation presents with pruritus and jaundice. What is the most appropriate investigation?

Accepted Answer

Bile acids measurement

Answer

Liver function tests

Answer

Ultrasound of liver

Answer

Serum bilirubin

Question 2

What is the most common complication of Zika virus infection in pregnant women?

Accepted Answer

Microcephaly in the newborn

Answer

Gestational diabetes

Answer

Spontaneous abortion

Answer

Pre-eclampsia

Question 3

Which condition is associated with an increased risk of developing placenta accreta?

Accepted Answer

Prior cesarean delivery

Answer

Multiparity

Answer

Maternal anemia

Answer

Advanced maternal age

Question 4

What is the most common type of ovarian tumor that occurs during pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Dermoid cyst

Answer

Serous cystadenoma

Answer

Mucinous cystadenoma

Answer

Endometrioma

Question 5

Which condition is characterized by high levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) and a 'snowstorm' pattern on ultrasound?

Accepted Answer

Complete hydatidiform mole

Answer

Partial hydatidiform mole

Answer

Ectopic pregnancy

Answer

Missed abortion

Question 6

A 29-year-old G2P1 woman at 36 weeks of gestation presents with severe preeclampsia. Her blood pressure is 170/110 mmHg despite antihypertensive treatment, and she is experiencing a headache and visual disturbances. What is the next step in management?

Accepted Answer

Immediate induction of labor or cesarean delivery

Answer

Continue antihypertensive treatment and monitor closely

Answer

Administer corticosteroids and delay delivery

Answer

Increase the dose of antihypertensive medications

Question 7

What is the primary treatment for a pregnant woman diagnosed with symptomatic cholelithiasis?

Accepted Answer

Laparoscopic cholecystectomy

Answer

Oral bile acid therapy

Answer

ERCP for bile duct complications

Answer

Observation and symptom management

Question 8

A 24-year-old woman, G1P0, at 32 weeks of gestation presents with a sudden onset of severe, localized abdominal pain and vaginal spotting. Examination reveals a tender, rigid abdomen. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Placental abruption

Answer

Uterine rupture

Answer

Labor onset

Answer

Urinary tract infection

Question 9

What is the most recommended preventive measure for a pregnant woman at high risk of preterm birth due to a short cervix?

Accepted Answer

Progesterone therapy

Answer

Strict bed rest

Answer

Regular prenatal check-ups

Answer

Cerclage (cervical stitch)

Question 10

Which medication is considered the first-line treatment for managing hypertension during pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Methyldopa

Answer

ACE inhibitors

Answer

Beta-blockers

Answer

Calcium channel blockers

Maternal-Fetal Medicine — MCQs

Maternal-Fetal Medicine — MCQs

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