Maternal-Fetal Medicine — MCQs

Maternal-Fetal Medicine Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1071: All are the causes of non-immune hydrops except?

A. Thalassemia
B. Cardiovascular causes
C. Parvovirus
D. ABO incompatibility (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***ABO incompatibility*** - **ABO incompatibility** is a common cause of **immune hydrops fetalis** due to antibody-mediated hemolytic anemia. - Immune hydrops involves red blood cell destruction caused by maternal antibodies crossing the placenta, which is not characteristic of non-immune hydrops. *Thalassemia* - **Alpha-thalassemia major (Hb Barts hydrops fetalis)** is a severe form of thalassemia frequently leading to **non-immune hydrops** due to profound anemia. - The severe chronic anemia leads to **high-output cardiac failure**, diffuse edema, and ascites. *Cardiovascular causes* - **Structural heart defects** and **arrhythmias** can impair fetal circulation and cardiac function, leading to **non-immune hydrops**. - Conditions like **hypoplastic left heart syndrome** or **supraventricular tachycardia** can cause fluid overload and edema. *Parvovirus* - **Parvovirus B19 infection** in the fetus can cause severe **anemia** by targeting erythroid progenitor cells, resulting in bone marrow suppression. - This severe fetal anemia frequently leads to **non-immune hydrops** as a consequence of heart failure.

Question 1072: A primigravida in her 10th week of gestation presents with spotting. On examination, the uterus corresponds to 12 weeks. Transvaginal ultrasound was done and it is given below. What is your diagnosis?

A. Blighted ovum
B. Ectopic pregnancy
C. Hydatidiform mole (Correct Answer)
D. Missed abortion

Explanation: ***Hydatidiform mole*** - The ultrasound image shows a **"snowstorm" appearance**, characterized by multiple echogenic vesicles or cystic spaces within the uterine cavity, which is pathognomonic for a hydatidiform mole. - The clinical presentation of **vaginal spotting**, a uterus size **larger than expected for gestational age** (12 weeks uterus size at 10 weeks gestation), and possibly elevated hCG levels (though not given here) are all highly suggestive of a molar pregnancy. *Blighted ovum* - A blighted ovum, also known as an anembryonic pregnancy, involves a **gestational sac without an embryo**. - The ultrasound typically shows an empty gestational sac and does not feature the characteristic "snowstorm" pattern of a hydatidiform mole. *Ectopic pregnancy* - An ectopic pregnancy occurs when the **fertilized egg implants outside the uterus**, most commonly in the fallopian tube. - The ultrasound would typically show an **empty uterus** and a gestation outside the uterine cavity, usually with a mass in the adnexa, which is not seen here. *Missed abortion* - A missed abortion is characterized by the **death of the embryo or fetus but retention** within the uterus. - Ultrasound would show a **fetus without cardiac activity** or a gestational sac that is smaller than expected, without the typical vesicular pattern of a mole.

Question 1073: A pregnant woman at 36 weeks gestation is found to have high blood pressure recording and a urine protein of 3+. Concomitant presence of which of the following symptoms would make you suspect imminent eclampsia? 1. Headache 2. Blurred vision 3. Persistent pedal oedema 4. Epigastric pain

A. 1,2,3,4
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1,2,3
D. 1 and 2 only (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***1 and 2 only*** - **Headache** (severe, persistent, frontal or occipital) and **blurred vision** (scotomas, photophobia, or visual field defects) are the classic **neurological symptoms** indicating cerebral irritation and vasospasm that directly precede eclamptic seizures. - These symptoms reflect **imminent CNS involvement** and are the strongest predictors of impending seizure, requiring urgent intervention (magnesium sulfate prophylaxis, delivery planning). - While other symptoms indicate severe pre-eclampsia, these neurological signs specifically herald **imminent eclampsia**. *2 and 4 only* - **Blurred vision** is indeed a key warning sign, and **epigastric pain** (right upper quadrant pain) is an important symptom of severe pre-eclampsia indicating hepatic capsule distension or subcapsular hematoma. - However, this option misses **headache**, which is one of the most critical neurological warning signs of imminent seizure. Epigastric pain indicates hepatic involvement (severe disease) but is not as directly predictive of immediate seizure onset as the combination of headache and visual disturbances. *1,2,3,4* - While headache, blurred vision, and epigastric pain are all features of severe pre-eclampsia, **persistent pedal edema** is extremely common in normal pregnancy and pre-eclampsia (present in >80% of cases) and is **not a specific indicator of imminent eclampsia**. - Generalized edema alone does not indicate imminent seizure risk and is too non-specific to be grouped with the acute neurological warning signs. *1,2,3* - **Headache** and **blurred vision** are the correct neurological indicators of imminent eclampsia. - However, **persistent pedal edema** is very common in pre-eclampsia and not specific for imminent eclamptic seizure risk. It does not have the same predictive value as severe headache or acute visual disturbances for identifying patients at immediate risk of convulsion.

Question 1074: A 29-year-old woman tests positive for HIV during pregnancy screening. She is concerned about transmission to her baby. Which of the following interventions most significantly reduces the risk of vertical transmission?

A. Avoiding breastfeeding only
B. Cesarean delivery only
C. Antiretroviral therapy during pregnancy and labor (Correct Answer)
D. Maternal immunization

Explanation: ***Antiretroviral therapy during pregnancy and labor*** - **Antiretroviral therapy (ART)** significantly reduces the **viral load** in the mother, thereby minimizing the risk of HIV transmission to the fetus during pregnancy and childbirth. - When combined with other strategies like **cesarean section** and **avoidance of breastfeeding** in developed countries, ART can reduce vertical transmission rates to less than 1%. *Avoiding breastfeeding only* - While **avoiding breastfeeding** is a crucial intervention, especially in settings where safe alternatives are available, it addresses only one mode of transmission (postnatal). - It does not prevent **in-utero** or **intrapartum transmission**, which are primary routes of vertical transmission if the viral load is high. *Cesarean delivery only* - **Cesarean delivery** can reduce the risk of transmission by avoiding exposure to maternal blood and secretions during vaginal delivery. - However, it is most effective when the maternal **viral load is high** and is often combined with ART for maximum efficacy; it's less effective without ART. *Maternal immunization* - **Maternal immunization** involves administering vaccines to the mother to protect against specific infections, primarily bacterial or viral diseases like influenza or tetanus. - It has **no direct impact** on the risk of HIV transmission, as there is currently no vaccine available for HIV.

Question 1075: A 25-year-old woman presents with vulvar ulcers and inguinal lymphadenopathy. PCR testing is positive for HSV-2. She is 20 weeks pregnant. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

A. Topical acyclovir only
B. Oral acyclovir with continued monitoring during pregnancy (Correct Answer)
C. Valacyclovir with planned cesarean delivery
D. Immediate cesarean delivery

Explanation: ***Oral acyclovir with continued monitoring during pregnancy*** - **Oral acyclovir** is the recommended treatment for HSV-2 during pregnancy to manage acute outbreaks and prevent recurrence, as it is **safely used** throughout pregnancy. - Continued monitoring ensures the effectiveness of treatment and allows for adjustments as pregnancy progresses, especially regarding labor and delivery planning to prevent **neonatal HSV transmission**. *Topical acyclovir only* - **Topical acyclovir** has limited systemic absorption and is generally **less effective** for treating established outbreaks, especially with lymphadenopathy, compared to oral antivirals. - It does not significantly reduce the risk of future outbreaks or vertical transmission to the fetus. *Valacyclovir with planned cesarean delivery* - While **valacyclovir** is also an appropriate antiviral for HSV, a **planned cesarean delivery** is typically reserved for women with active genital lesions or prodromal symptoms *at the onset of labor* to prevent neonatal transmission. - Prophylactic cesarean delivery based solely on a mid-pregnancy diagnosis of HSV-2, without active lesions near term, is not indicated. *Immediate cesarean delivery* - **Immediate cesarean delivery** is not indicated at 20 weeks gestation, as the fetus is not viable and there's no immediate obstetrical emergency. - This option would also pose significant risks to both the mother and fetus without providing any benefit for managing HSV at this stage of pregnancy.

Question 1076: Which of the following is NOT a recommended prevention strategy for vertical transmission of HIV?

A. Elective cesarean at 40 weeks (Correct Answer)
B. Avoidance of breastfeeding
C. Intrapartum zidovudine
D. Antiretroviral therapy during pregnancy

Explanation: ***Elective cesarean at 40 weeks*** - This is **NOT recommended** as stated because: - When elective cesarean section is indicated (viral load >1000 copies/mL), it should be performed at **38 weeks gestation**, NOT 40 weeks - At 40 weeks, there's increased risk of spontaneous labor and membrane rupture, which defeats the purpose of elective cesarean - With adequate viral suppression (<1000 copies/mL or undetectable), **vaginal delivery is safe** and cesarean is not routinely recommended - The decision for cesarean is based on **viral load**, not simply gestational age *Avoidance of breastfeeding* - **Breastfeeding** is a known route of vertical HIV transmission due to the presence of the virus in breast milk - In developed countries where safe alternatives are available, **formula feeding** is recommended to completely eliminate this risk - This IS a recommended prevention strategy *Intrapartum zidovudine* - **Intravenous zidovudine (AZT)** administered during labor effectively reduces HIV transmission from mother to child - This is a crucial component of the prevention protocol, especially for mothers with detectable viral loads or those who have not received full antiretroviral therapy - This IS a recommended prevention strategy *Antiretroviral therapy during pregnancy* - **Antiretroviral therapy (ART)** taken throughout pregnancy significantly lowers the maternal viral load, which is the most critical factor in preventing vertical transmission - Suppressing the viral load to **undetectable levels** before delivery is the primary goal and most effective strategy - This IS a recommended prevention strategy

Question 1077: A 26-week pregnant female presents with hypertension for the first time. There is no proteinuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Hypertension diagnosed before 20 weeks of gestation
B. Hypertension diagnosed after 20 weeks of gestation without proteinuria (Correct Answer)
C. Hypertension with proteinuria or end-organ damage
D. Hypertension with seizures

Explanation: ***Hypertension diagnosed after 20 weeks of gestation without proteinuria*** - This scenario describes **gestational hypertension**, defined as new-onset hypertension (≥140/90 mmHg) presenting *after* 20 weeks of gestation, without associated proteinuria or other signs of preeclampsia. - The patient's presentation at **26 weeks** with **no proteinuria** directly aligns with the diagnostic criteria for gestational hypertension. *Hypertension diagnosed before 20 weeks of gestation* - This description corresponds to **chronic hypertension**, meaning the hypertension was present *before* pregnancy or diagnosed *before* 20 weeks of gestation. - The question explicitly states the hypertension is presenting for the **first time** and the gestational age is **26 weeks**, ruling out chronic hypertension. *Hypertension with proteinuria or end-organ damage* - This definition describes **preeclampsia**, which involves new-onset hypertension *after* 20 weeks accompanied by significant **proteinuria** or signs of **end-organ damage** like renal insufficiency, liver dysfunction, or thrombocytopenia. - The patient specifically has **no proteinuria**, making preeclampsia an unlikely diagnosis based on the provided information. *Hypertension with seizures* - This refers to **eclampsia**, a severe complication of preeclampsia characterized by the development of **generalized tonic-clonic seizures** in a pregnant patient with preeclampsia, unrelated to other brain conditions. - The patient in this case is not experiencing seizures; therefore, eclampsia is not the correct diagnosis.

Question 1078: A 35-year-old woman at 36 weeks of gestation presents with a history of 5 convulsions at home. Her BP is 170/100 mmHg. The diagnosis made by the doctor is eclampsia. What is the next management?

A. Clonidine
B. Only Labetalol
C. Only MgSO4
D. MgSO4 + Labetalol (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***MgSO4 + Labetalol*** - The patient presents with **eclampsia**, characterized by convulsions and severe hypertension (BP 170/100 mmHg) during pregnancy. Magnesium sulfate (**MgSO4**) is the **first-line treatment for preventing and managing eclamptic seizures**. - **Labetalol** is an appropriate antihypertensive for **severe hypertension in pregnancy** (BP ≥160/110 mmHg) and must be used concurrently with MgSO4 to control the high blood pressure and prevent maternal complications like stroke or placental abruption. - Both medications are required for comprehensive management of eclampsia with severe hypertension. *Clonidine* - **Clonidine** is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used to treat hypertension but is **not the first-line antihypertensive choice in acute eclampsia** due to potential sedative effects and slower onset compared to other agents like Labetalol, Hydralazine, or Nifedipine. - While it can lower blood pressure, it **does not address the seizure risk** in eclampsia. *Only Labetalol* - While **Labetalol** is crucial for managing severe hypertension, treating eclampsia requires both seizure control and blood pressure management. Administering only Labetalol would **fail to prevent recurrent seizures**, which is the primary life-threatening concern. - It would adequately lower blood pressure but **does not address the underlying seizure pathology** of eclampsia. *Only MgSO4* - **MgSO4** is essential for seizure prophylaxis and treatment in eclampsia. However, in this patient with a blood pressure of **170/100 mmHg (severe hypertension)**, **MgSO4 alone would not adequately control the severe hypertension**, which poses risks of maternal complications like stroke, intracerebral hemorrhage, or placental abruption. - While it prevents seizures effectively, it **does not sufficiently manage severe maternal hypertension**, requiring an additional antihypertensive agent like Labetalol.

Question 1079: A G4P2 lady presented with history of two abortions at 16 weeks and 20 weeks POG. Which of the following could be the most likely reason for these abortions?

A. Thyroid abnormality
B. Cervical incompetence (Correct Answer)
C. Chromosomal abnormality
D. Placenta previa

Explanation: ***Cervical incompetence*** - **Recurrent second-trimester pregnancy losses** (16 and 20 weeks) with a history of two previous abortions are highly suggestive of cervical incompetence, where the cervix dilates prematurely. - This condition is characterized by painless, progressive cervical dilation leading to **fetal expulsion** without contractions, which aligns with the presentation of repeated mid-trimester abortions. *Thyroid abnormality* - While **untreated hypothyroidism** or **hyperthyroidism** can increase the risk of miscarriage, these typically lead to **earlier first-trimester losses** or other obstetric complications, not recurrent mid-trimester abortions. - Abortion due to thyroid dysfunction is often associated with other signs and symptoms of thyroid disease, which are not mentioned. *Chromosomal abnormality* - **Chromosomal abnormalities** are the most common cause of **first-trimester miscarriages**, accounting for about 50% of them. - While they can cause later losses, recurrent mid-trimester abortions are less commonly attributed solely to chromosomal issues, especially in the absence of other malformations. *Placenta previa* - **Placenta previa** is a condition where the placenta partially or totally covers the cervix, causing painless vaginal bleeding in the **late second or third trimester**. - It increases the risk of preterm birth but is not a direct cause of recurrent fetal loss at 16 and 20 weeks gestation in the manner described.

Question 1080: Which of the following can be a cause of Oligohydramnios?

A. Macrosomia
B. Multiparity
C. Renal agenesis (Correct Answer)
D. Twins

Explanation: ***Renal agenesis*** - **Fetal urine production** is the primary source of **amniotic fluid** in the latter half of pregnancy, so **bilateral renal agenesis** prevents this production. - Oligohydramnios due to renal agenesis is often associated with **Potter sequence**, characterized by facial anomalies, limb deformities, and pulmonary hypoplasia due to prolonged severe oligohydramnios. *Macrosomia* - **Macrosomia** (large baby) is not a cause of oligohydramnios; a larger fetus does not directly reduce amniotic fluid volume. - In fact, conditions like **gestational diabetes** which can cause macrosomia, are often associated with **polyhydramnios** (excess amniotic fluid) due to increased fetal urination. *Multiparity* - **Multiparity** (having had multiple previous pregnancies) is not directly associated with oligohydramnios. - While it can be a risk factor for certain pregnancy complications, it does not physiologically lead to reduced amniotic fluid. *Twins* - A multifetal pregnancy, such as **twins**, can sometimes be associated with complications like **twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome**, where one twin might develop oligohydramnios and the other polyhydramnios. - However, the presence of twins itself does not intrinsically cause oligohydramnios; it is a potential complication of specific twin types or their pathologies rather than a direct cause.

Practice by Chapter

Fetal Assessment Techniques

Practice Questions

Hypertensive Disorders in Pregnancy

Practice Questions

Intrauterine Growth Restriction

Practice Questions

Multiple Gestation

Practice Questions

Rh Isoimmunization and Other Blood Group Incompatibilities

Practice Questions

Intrauterine Fetal Therapy

Practice Questions

Prenatal Diagnosis and Genetic Counseling

Practice Questions

Placental Abnormalities

Practice Questions

Preterm Labor and Delivery

Practice Questions

Management of Medical Disorders in Pregnancy

Practice Questions

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