Maternal-Fetal Medicine — MCQs

Consider the following statements regarding Non Stress Test (NST): 1. Reactive NST indicates a healthy fetus 2. NST is an observed association of fetal breathing with fetal movements 3. NST has a low false negative rate (< 1%) but high false positive rate (>50%) 4. Testing should be started at 20 weeks Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

Q1054

Which of the following is TRUE regarding herpes simplex virus (HSV) in pregnancy?

Q1055

A 24-year-old woman with bacterial vaginosis is admitted to the hospital in preterm labor at 30 weeks. What is the most appropriate antibiotic regimen?

Q1056

A pregnant woman at 34 weeks is diagnosed with trichomoniasis. What is the most appropriate treatment?

Q1057

A 28-year-old woman in her first trimester of pregnancy is diagnosed with syphilis (VDRL 1:32, TPHA positive). She reports penicillin allergy with previous anaphylaxis. What is the most appropriate management?

Q1058

A pregnant female at 37 weeks of gestation with a history of prosthetic heart valves is currently taking warfarin. She comes for a routine antenatal check-up. What is the appropriate management advice?

Q1059

A patient with eclampsia is being treated with magnesium sulfate. Which of the following is an indication to stop the drug?

Q1060

A woman at 30 weeks of gestation is diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

Maternal-Fetal Medicine Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1051: As per ICMR guidelines, which one of the following statements is true regarding COVID-19 infection in pregnancy?

A. Pregnant women with heart disease are at higher risk (Correct Answer)
B. COVID-19 pneumonia in pregnancy is more severe with poor recovery
C. COVID-19 virus is secreted in breast milk
D. Vaginal secretions always test positive for COVID-19 in pregnancy

Explanation: ***Pregnant women with heart disease are at higher risk*** - Pre-existing **heart disease** is a significant risk factor for severe COVID-19 outcomes in pregnant women due to the increased physiological cardiac demands of both pregnancy and infection. - According to ICMR guidelines and global data, comorbidities like **cardiovascular disease** place pregnant individuals in a higher-risk category for severe illness. *COVID-19 pneumonia in pregnancy is more severe with poor recovery* - While pregnant women *can* develop severe COVID-19 pneumonia, the general consensus, including ICMR guidelines, states that most pregnant women experience **mild to moderate illness** and have a **good recovery**. - Pooled data indicates that the majority of pregnant women with COVID-19 will not develop severe pneumonia or experience poorer recovery *solely* due to pregnancy. *COVID-19 virus is secreted in breast milk* - Current evidence suggests that the **COVID-19 virus is generally not detectable** in breast milk. - ICMR and other major health organizations recommend that **mothers with COVID-19 continue breastfeeding**, as the benefits outweigh potential risks, and antibodies may be transferred. *Vaginal secretions always test positive for COVID-19 in pregnancy* - The primary transmission route for COVID-19 is through **respiratory droplets**, not vaginal secretions. - While some studies have detected viral RNA in vaginal secretions in a small percentage of cases, it is **not always positive** and is not considered a primary source of transmission.

Question 1052: As per ICMR guidelines, which one of the following statements is true regarding effects of COVID-19 on fetus according to current evidence?

A. COVID-19 virus infection is an indication of MTP
B. COVID-19 virus is not teratogenic (Correct Answer)
C. There is increased risk of fetal growth restriction
D. There is increased risk of early pregnancy loss

Explanation: ***COVID-19 virus is not teratogenic*** - Current evidence, including ICMR guidelines, indicates that the COVID-19 virus itself does not cause **congenital malformations** or developmental abnormalities in the fetus, distinguishing it from truly **teratogenic agents**. - While maternal infection can have adverse outcomes, these are generally not due to direct fetal malformation from the virus. *COVID-19 virus infection is an indication of MTP* - **MTP (Medical Termination of Pregnancy)** is not indicated solely based on maternal COVID-19 infection, as the virus is not considered teratogenic and typically does not cause severe direct fetal harm requiring termination. - Ethical and medical guidelines do not support routine termination for uncomplicated maternal COVID-19. *There is increased risk of fetal growth restriction* - While severe maternal COVID-19 can rarely be associated with *some* adverse pregnancy outcomes, a consistently and significantly increased risk of **fetal growth restriction (FGR)** is not definitively established as a direct effect of the virus itself, especially in mild to moderate cases. - Other factors, such as severe maternal illness, hypoxia, or comorbidities, are more strongly linked to FGR. *There is increased risk of early pregnancy loss* - Data from various studies has not consistently shown a significant or direct increase in the risk of **early pregnancy loss** (miscarriage) specifically due to COVID-19 infection in early pregnancy. - While any maternal infection can theoretically increase risk, COVID-19 is not classified as a primary cause of increased early pregnancy loss based on current evidence.

Question 1053: Consider the following statements regarding Non Stress Test (NST): 1. Reactive NST indicates a healthy fetus 2. NST is an observed association of fetal breathing with fetal movements 3. NST has a low false negative rate (< 1%) but high false positive rate (>50%) 4. Testing should be started at 20 weeks Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 4
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1 and 3 (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***1 and 3*** - A **reactive NST** indicates adequate fetal oxygenation and an intact autonomic nervous system, strongly suggesting a **healthy fetus**. - NST has excellent **sensitivity** for detecting fetal well-being, leading to a very **low false-negative rate** (less than 1%), but its relatively high rate of non-reactive results in healthy fetuses contributes to a **high false-positive rate** (over 50%). *1 and 4* - While statement 1 is correct, statement 4 is incorrect because NST testing is typically initiated at **28-32 weeks of gestation**, not 20 weeks, as fetal autonomic nervous system maturation is required. - At 20 weeks, the fetus often lacks the mature neurological responses necessary for a reliable NST. *2 only* - Statement 2 incorrectly describes NST; the NST observes the association of **fetal heart rate accelerations** with **fetal movements**, not fetal breathing. - Fetal breathing movements are typically assessed during a **biophysical profile**, not solely by NST. *3 only* - While statement 3 correctly describes the false negative and positive rates of NST, statement 1 is also correct, as a reactive NST is indeed a strong indicator of a healthy fetus. - This option is incomplete as it misses another correct statement.

Question 1054: Which of the following is TRUE regarding herpes simplex virus (HSV) in pregnancy?

A. Transmission risk is highest with first-episode primary infection near delivery (Correct Answer)
B. Neonatal transmission risk is similar for HSV-1 and HSV-2
C. Cesarean delivery is recommended for all HSV-positive women
D. Suppressive therapy is contraindicated during pregnancy

Explanation: ***Transmission risk is highest with first-episode primary infection near delivery*** - A **primary HSV infection** in an expectant mother, especially close to delivery, poses the greatest risk of neonatal transmission due to the high viral load and lack of maternal-acquired antibodies. - This scenario leads to a higher probability of the fetus being exposed to the virus during passage through the **birth canal**. *Neonatal transmission risk is similar for HSV-1 and HSV-2* - **HSV-2** is responsible for the majority of **neonatal herpes cases** and has a significantly higher transmission rate during vaginal birth compared to HSV-1. - While both can cause neonatal infection, **HSV-2 is more frequently associated with severe neonatal disease and mortality**. *Cesarean delivery is recommended for all HSV-positive women* - A Cesarean delivery is only recommended for HSV-positive women who have **active genital lesions** or **prodromal symptoms** indicative of an impending outbreak at the time of labor. - For women with a history of HSV but no active lesions or symptoms, a **vaginal delivery is considered safe**. *Suppressive therapy is contraindicated during pregnancy* - **Antiviral suppressive therapy** (e.g., acyclovir, valacyclovir) is often recommended during the last month of pregnancy for women with recurrent HSV to reduce the risk of an outbreak during labor. - This therapy is **safe and effective** in preventing neonatal transmission and is not contraindicated.

Question 1055: A 24-year-old woman with bacterial vaginosis is admitted to the hospital in preterm labor at 30 weeks. What is the most appropriate antibiotic regimen?

A. Metronidazole 2g orally single dose
B. Clindamycin 300mg orally twice daily for 7 days
C. Clindamycin 5g vaginal cream for 7 days
D. Metronidazole 500mg orally twice daily for 7 days (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Metronidazole 500mg orally twice daily for 7 days*** - This regimen is an appropriate and effective treatment for **bacterial vaginosis**, with **oral metronidazole** being a first-line therapy. - Treating **bacterial vaginosis** in a pregnant woman with **preterm labor** is crucial as untreated BV is a known risk factor for preterm birth and other obstetric complications. *Metronidazole 2g orally single dose* - While a **single-dose 2g metronidazole** regimen is an alternative for non-pregnant patients, it is generally **less effective** and not typically recommended for pregnant women, especially those in preterm labor, where complete eradication is critical. - **Higher recurrence rates** have been reported with single-dose regimens compared to multi-day treatments. *Clindamycin 300mg orally twice daily for 7 days* - **Oral clindamycin** is an alternative treatment for bacterial vaginosis, but **metronidazole** is often preferred as a first-line option due to its efficacy and safety profile in pregnancy. - The patient's condition of **preterm labor** would generally favor the most established and safest first-line treatment. *Clindamycin 5g vaginal cream for 7 days* - **Vaginal clindamycin cream** is an effective treatment for bacterial vaginosis, but in a patient with **preterm labor**, an **oral systemic antibiotic** is often preferred to ensure adequate tissue penetration and reduce the risk of ascending infection affecting the uterus. - Vaginal creams might be less effective in preventing obstetric complications associated with BV compared to oral therapy in high-risk pregnancies.

Question 1056: A pregnant woman at 34 weeks is diagnosed with trichomoniasis. What is the most appropriate treatment?

A. Clindamycin cream vaginally for 7 days
B. Defer treatment until after delivery
C. Metronidazole 2g orally as single dose
D. Metronidazole 500mg orally twice daily for 7 days (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Metronidazole 500mg orally twice daily for 7 days*** - For pregnant women with trichomoniasis, **metronidazole** is the treatment of choice and is safe in all trimesters. - Both the **7-day course (500mg BID)** and **single 2g dose** are considered **equally effective first-line treatments** per CDC and ACOG guidelines. - The 7-day regimen may be preferred in cases of **treatment failure**, **recurrent infection**, or when **better tissue penetration** is desired. - It ensures adequate eradication and provides sustained therapeutic levels throughout the treatment period. *Clindamycin cream vaginally for 7 days* - **Clindamycin** is effective for bacterial vaginosis but **not effective against Trichomonas vaginalis**, which is a protozoan parasite. - Topical treatments do not achieve sufficient systemic levels to adequately treat trichomoniasis. *Defer treatment until after delivery* - Untreated trichomoniasis in pregnancy is associated with significant risks including **preterm birth**, **premature rupture of membranes**, **low birth weight**, and **increased HIV transmission risk**. - Treatment during pregnancy is strongly recommended to mitigate these complications. - Metronidazole is safe in all trimesters of pregnancy. *Metronidazole 2g orally as single dose* - The **single 2g dose** is an equally effective first-line treatment option and is often preferred for **better patient compliance**. - Both this regimen and the 7-day course have **equivalent cure rates** (approximately 90-95%). - In this question context, while both are acceptable, the 7-day regimen is considered the correct answer.

Question 1057: A 28-year-old woman in her first trimester of pregnancy is diagnosed with syphilis (VDRL 1:32, TPHA positive). She reports penicillin allergy with previous anaphylaxis. What is the most appropriate management?

A. Doxycycline for 14 days
B. Erythromycin for 14 days
C. Azithromycin single dose
D. Penicillin desensitization followed by benzathine penicillin (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Penicillin desensitization followed by benzathine penicillin*** - **Penicillin** is the only proven effective treatment for syphilis in pregnancy, preventing **congenital syphilis**. - Due to the high risk of fetal harm (including **stillbirth** and **hydrops fetalis**), a history of penicillin allergy, even anaphylaxis, necessitates **desensitization** in a controlled hospital setting. *Doxycycline for 14 days* - **Doxycycline** is contraindicated in pregnancy due to the risk of **fetal skeletal and dental abnormalities**. - It is an effective treatment for non-pregnant individuals with penicillin allergy, but not suitable for this patient. *Erythromycin for 14 days* - **Erythromycin** does not reliably cross the placenta and is therefore not effective in preventing **congenital syphilis**. - It is not recommended for the treatment of syphilis in pregnant women. *Azithromycin single dose* - There are documented cases of **macrolide resistance** in *Treponema pallidum*, rendering azithromycin unreliable for syphilis treatment. - Its efficacy in preventing **congenital syphilis** is not well-established, making it an inappropriate choice for pregnant women.

Question 1058: A pregnant female at 37 weeks of gestation with a history of prosthetic heart valves is currently taking warfarin. She comes for a routine antenatal check-up. What is the appropriate management advice?

A. Immediate induction of labor
B. Perform LSCS (Lower Segment Cesarean Section)
C. Continue the same medication
D. Switch to low molecular weight heparin (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Switch to low molecular weight heparin*** - **Warfarin** is **teratogenic** and carries a significant risk of **fetal bleeding** and **malformations**, especially close to term. Switching to **low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)** is crucial at 37 weeks. - **LMWH** does not cross the placenta, making it a safer alternative for anticoagulation in late pregnancy for women with prosthetic heart valves. *Immediate induction of labor* - While delivery is approaching, immediate induction of labor without addressing the **warfarin** use directly puts the fetus at high risk of **bleeding complications** during delivery. - This option does not specify concurrent management of the anticoagulation, which is the primary concern. *Perform LSCS (Lower Segment Cesarean Section)* - Similar to induction of labor, performing a C-section while the mother is on **warfarin** significantly increases the risk of **maternal and fetal hemorrhage**. - A C-section is an invasive procedure, and the immediate priority is to switch the anticoagulant rather than select the mode of delivery without addressing the current medication. *Continue the same medication* - Continuing **warfarin** at 37 weeks is highly dangerous due to the increased risk of **fetal intracranial hemorrhage** during labor and delivery. - This approach disregards the well-established **teratogenic effects** and **bleeding risks** associated with warfarin in late pregnancy.

Question 1059: A patient with eclampsia is being treated with magnesium sulfate. Which of the following is an indication to stop the drug?

A. Respiratory rate more than 18 per minute
B. Exaggerated deep tendon reflexes
C. Urine output less than 100 ml in 4 hours (Correct Answer)
D. Presence of visual disturbances

Explanation: ***Urine output less than 100 ml in 4 hours*** - A **decreased urine output of less than 100 mL in 4 hours (< 25-30 mL/hour)** suggests **renal impairment**, which can lead to magnesium accumulation and toxicity. - **Magnesium is primarily excreted by the kidneys**, so reduced renal function necessitates discontinuation to prevent toxicity. - This is one of the **critical monitoring parameters** before each dose of magnesium sulfate. *Respiratory rate more than 18 per minute* - A **respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute or more** is considered normal and does not indicate magnesium toxicity. - **Respiratory depression**, characterized by a rate of **less than 12 breaths per minute**, is a sign of toxicity and an indication to stop magnesium sulfate. *Exaggerated deep tendon reflexes* - **Exaggerated deep tendon reflexes** are typically associated with conditions like **pre-eclampsia**, not magnesium toxicity. - **Loss or absence of deep tendon reflexes** is a key indicator of magnesium toxicity due to its neuromuscular blocking effects and is an indication to stop the drug. *Presence of visual disturbances* - **Visual disturbances** such as blurred vision, scotomas, or flashing lights are common symptoms of **severe pre-eclampsia and eclampsia** itself. - These visual changes are part of the disease process, not a direct sign of magnesium toxicity or an indication to stop the infusion.

Question 1060: A woman at 30 weeks of gestation is diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

A. Warfarin
B. Low Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWH) (Correct Answer)
C. Apixaban
D. Fondaparinux

Explanation: ***Low Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWH)*** - **LMWH** is the preferred anticoagulant for DVT during pregnancy because it does **not cross the placenta**, making it safe for the fetus. - It also has a **predictable anticoagulant response** and a lower risk of **heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)** compared to unfractionated heparin. *Warfarin* - **Warfarin is teratogenic**, especially during the first trimester, and can cause **fetal warfarin syndrome**, which includes skeletal and central nervous system abnormalities. - It can also lead to **fetal bleeding** and miscarriage at any stage of pregnancy. *Apixaban* - **Apixaban** is a **direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC)**, and its safety in pregnancy has not been established. - There is insufficient data regarding its **placental transfer** and potential fetal effects, making its use generally contraindicated in pregnant women. *Fondaparinux* - While **fondaparinux** is an indirect Factor Xa inhibitor and might be considered in cases of heparin allergy or intolerance, its **safety profile in pregnancy is not as well-established** as LMWH. - It is generally reserved for situations where LMWH cannot be used, and its use requires careful consideration due to limited data.

Practice by Chapter

Fetal Assessment Techniques

Practice Questions

Hypertensive Disorders in Pregnancy

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Intrauterine Growth Restriction

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Multiple Gestation

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Rh Isoimmunization and Other Blood Group Incompatibilities

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Intrauterine Fetal Therapy

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Prenatal Diagnosis and Genetic Counseling

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Placental Abnormalities

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Preterm Labor and Delivery

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Management of Medical Disorders in Pregnancy

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