Maternal-Fetal Medicine — MCQs

Maternal-Fetal Medicine Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 991: Which of the following haematological parameters does not undergo a physiological increase during normal pregnancy?

A. Blood volume
B. Platelet count (Correct Answer)
C. Red cell volume
D. Leukocyte count

Explanation: ***Platelet count*** - The **platelet count** typically **decreases** or remains stable during normal pregnancy due to hemodilution and increased consumption. - A significant increase in platelet count can be indicative of **pathological conditions** rather than a physiological adaptation. *Blood volume* - **Blood volume** physiologically **increases** during pregnancy by approximately 30-50% to meet the metabolic demands of the fetus and placenta. - This expansion primarily involves an increase in **plasma volume**, contributing to physiological anemia. *Red cell volume* - The **red cell volume** also **increases** during pregnancy, though usually to a lesser extent (around 18-30%) than plasma volume. - This increase is due to elevated **erythropoietin levels** stimulating red blood cell production, helping to increase oxygen-carrying capacity. *Leukocyte count* - The **leukocyte (white blood cell) count** physiologically **increases** during pregnancy, particularly neutrophils, often peaking in the third trimester. - This mild leukocytosis is a normal response to the physiological stress of pregnancy and is not indicative of infection.

Question 992: In a woman with molar pregnancy with a uterus size of 28 weeks, the treatment of choice is

A. Hysteroscopy
B. Hysterectomy
C. Suction evacuation (Correct Answer)
D. Medical induction with prostaglandins

Explanation: ***Suction evacuation*** - For **molar pregnancy**, especially with a large uterine size (28 weeks in this case), **suction evacuation** is the treatment of choice to remove the abnormal trophoblastic tissue. - This method is preferred due to its safety and efficacy in emptying the uterus while minimizing complications like hemorrhage or uterine perforation. *Hysteroscopy* - **Hysteroscopy** is primarily used for diagnosing and treating intrauterine pathologies such as polyps or fibroids, and for endometrial assessment. It is not the primary treatment for molar pregnancy. - It involves inserting a scope into the uterus and is not designed for the large-volume tissue removal required in a molar pregnancy of this size. *Hysterectomy* - **Hysterectomy** (surgical removal of the uterus) is generally reserved for rare cases of recurrent molar pregnancy, when the patient desires no future fertility, or in the context of invasive molar disease or choriocarcinoma. It is not the initial treatment of choice. - It is an overly aggressive approach for an initial presentation of molar pregnancy, especially if the patient wishes to preserve fertility. *Medical induction with prostaglandins* - **Medical induction** using prostaglandins is typically used for therapeutic abortion or managing missed abortions, but it is contraindicated in molar pregnancy. - Prostaglandins can lead to vigorous uterine contractions and potentially cause a rapid expulsion of molar tissue into the systemic circulation, increasing the risk of **trophoblastic embolization** and choriocarcinoma.

Question 993: In the quadruple test conducted as a part of screening, which is the most likely indicator of maternal-fetal placental unit?

A. PAPP-A
B. Unconjugated estriol (uE3) (Correct Answer)
C. Inhibin-A
D. Acetylcholinesterase

Explanation: ***Unconjugated estriol (uE3)*** - **Unconjugated estriol (uE3)** is the **classic marker of the intact maternal-fetal-placental unit** in the quadruple test - Its production requires coordinated function of **all three components**: - **Fetal adrenal glands** produce DHEA-S (dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate) - **Fetal liver** converts DHEA-S to 16-OH-DHEA-S - **Placenta** converts 16-OH-DHEA-S to estriol - This unique biosynthetic pathway makes **uE3 the most specific indicator** of integrated maternal-fetal-placental unit function - Low uE3 levels can indicate fetal adrenal hypoplasia, placental sulfatase deficiency, or compromised fetal well-being *Inhibin-A* - **Inhibin-A** is a glycoprotein produced primarily by the **placenta** during pregnancy and is part of the quadruple test - While it reflects placental function, it is produced **only by the placenta**, not requiring fetal organ participation - Elevated Inhibin-A is associated with increased risk of Down syndrome and adverse pregnancy outcomes - It does **not** represent the integrated maternal-fetal-placental unit as comprehensively as uE3 *PAPP-A* - **PAPP-A** (Pregnancy-Associated Plasma Protein A) is a placental protein measured in **first trimester screening** (combined test with free β-hCG and nuchal translucency) - It is **not part of the quadruple test**, which is a **second trimester** screening panel - Low PAPP-A in first trimester is associated with chromosomal abnormalities and adverse pregnancy outcomes *Acetylcholinesterase* - **Acetylcholinesterase** is measured in **amniotic fluid**, not maternal serum - It is used as a confirmatory marker for **open neural tube defects (ONTDs)** and ventral wall defects - It is **not part of the quadruple test** and does not indicate overall maternal-fetal-placental unit function - The quadruple test uses **AFP, uE3, hCG, and Inhibin-A** measured in maternal serum

Question 994: The maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein concentration is elevated in the following conditions except

A. Foetal neural tube defect
B. Foetal osteogenesis imperfecta (Correct Answer)
C. Multiple gestation
D. Gestational trophoblastic disease

Explanation: ***Foetal osteogenesis imperfecta*** - **Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP)** levels are typically **normal** in cases of fetal osteogenesis imperfecta. - This condition involves **bone fragility and defective collagen synthesis** but does not cause exposure of fetal tissue or increased AFP production. - There is **no mechanism** for AFP leakage into maternal circulation, so MSAFP remains normal. *Foetal neural tube defect* - **Neural tube defects (NTDs)**, such as anencephaly or open spina bifida, cause direct **exposure of fetal neural tissue** to amniotic fluid. - This leads to leakage of **alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)** from the fetal bloodstream into the amniotic fluid and maternal circulation, resulting in **elevated MSAFP**. - This is the most common indication for MSAFP screening. *Multiple gestation* - In pregnancies with **multiple fetuses** (twins, triplets), the total amount of AFP produced by multiple placentas and fetuses is increased. - This naturally leads to **elevated MSAFP** levels compared to singleton pregnancy, even when all fetuses are healthy. - MSAFP values must be adjusted for number of fetuses. *Gestational trophoblastic disease* - Conditions like **complete hydatidiform mole** involve abnormal placental tissue **without a viable fetus**. - Since there is **no fetus to produce AFP**, MSAFP levels are typically **very low or undetectable**. - However, this option asks about conditions with **elevated** MSAFP, and GTD causes low levels, making it technically also an exception. - The **best answer** remains **fetal osteogenesis imperfecta** as the classic structural anomaly that does not elevate MSAFP, whereas GTD is distinguished by absence of a fetus entirely.

Question 995: A pregnant woman with 10 weeks gestation is diagnosed to have an ovarian cyst of 11 cm diameter. The best timing for the removal of the ovarian cyst is

A. Immediately
B. Immediately after delivery
C. At the time of caesarean section
D. In the second trimester (14-20 weeks) (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***In the second trimester (14-20 weeks)*** - The **second trimester** is the optimal timing for elective surgery during pregnancy as **organogenesis is complete** (reducing teratogenic risk) but the uterus is not yet too large to complicate surgery. - An **11 cm ovarian cyst** is large and unlikely to resolve spontaneously, warranting surgical intervention rather than expectant management. *At the time of caesarean section* - This approach assumes a **planned C-section** is indicated, which is not supported at 10 weeks gestation when mode of delivery cannot be predetermined. - Delaying surgery until an uncertain future C-section risks **complications** like torsion, rupture, or further cyst growth during pregnancy. *Immediately* - **First trimester surgery** carries higher risk of **miscarriage** and potential teratogenic effects during the critical organogenesis period. - While immediate intervention might prevent complications, the risks of surgery at 10 weeks outweigh the benefits for an asymptomatic cyst. *Immediately after delivery* - Post-delivery surgery involves increased **vascularity** and complications related to **uterine involution** and tissue changes. - This timing requires a **separate surgical procedure** and anesthetic exposure, increasing overall morbidity compared to planned second trimester surgery.

Question 996: In a gravid woman with placenta praevia, the following fetal complications are known to increase 1. Congenital malformations 2. Intrauterine growth retardation 3. Prematurity Select the correct answer from the code given below :

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 (Correct Answer)
D. 2 and 3 only

Explanation: ***1, 2 and 3*** - **Placenta praevia** is associated with an increased risk of **congenital malformations**, with studies showing a 2-3 fold increased risk compared to normal placentation. This includes CNS anomalies, cardiovascular defects, and musculoskeletal malformations. - **Intrauterine growth retardation (IUGR)** is a known complication due to impaired placental perfusion and suboptimal placental function in the lower uterine segment. - **Prematurity** is significantly increased with placenta praevia, often necessitating early delivery due to antepartum hemorrhage or other maternal-fetal complications. *1 and 2 only* - This option incorrectly excludes **prematurity**, which is one of the most significant fetal complications of placenta praevia. - Preterm delivery is often required due to recurrent bleeding episodes. *1 and 3 only* - This option incorrectly excludes **IUGR**, which is a well-documented complication. - The lower uterine segment has relatively poor vascularization, contributing to placental insufficiency. *2 and 3 only* - This option incorrectly excludes **congenital malformations**. - Multiple population-based studies have demonstrated an association between placenta praevia and increased rates of fetal anomalies, particularly involving the CNS and cardiovascular systems.

Question 997: During a routine prenatal visit, a 22-week gravid woman is found to be affected with ankle oedema and new onset hypertension. The urine analysis reveals marked proteinuria. Which of the following, if it were to occur, would substantiate the diagnosis of eclampsia?

A. Molar pregnancy
B. Thrombocytopenia
C. Seizures (Correct Answer)
D. Hyperuricaemia

Explanation: ***Seizures*** - The development of **new-onset generalized tonic-clonic seizures** in a patient with pre-existing pre-eclampsia (hypertension and proteinuria during pregnancy) is the defining criterion for **eclampsia**. - These seizures are not attributable to other causes and are a severe complication of pre-eclampsia, indicating central nervous system involvement. *Molar pregnancy* - While molar pregnancy can be associated with early-onset and more severe pre-eclampsia due to high hCG levels and abnormal placental development, it is not a direct diagnostic criterion for **eclampsia** itself. - Eclampsia specifically refers to the occurrence of seizures in the context of pre-eclampsia, regardless of the underlying cause of the pre-eclampsia. *Thrombocytopenia* - **Thrombocytopenia** (platelet count <100,000/µL) is a potential complication of severe pre-eclampsia and a component of **HELLP syndrome** (Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets). - While it indicates worsening disease, the presence of thrombocytopenia alone does not define eclampsia; eclampsia is characterized by the occurrence of **seizures**. *Hyperuricaemia* - **Hyperuricaemia** (elevated serum uric acid) is a common finding in pre-eclampsia and often correlates with the severity of the disease. - However, it is a biochemical marker of kidney dysfunction and increased oxidative stress, not a defining diagnostic feature of **eclampsia**, which is specifically marked by the onset of **seizures**.

Question 998: In a pregnancy complicated by heart disease, which of the following is/are contraindicated? 1. External cephalic version 2. LSCS 3. Corrective surgery of the heart lesion 4. Prophylactic intravenous meth-ergine at the birth of anterior shoulder Select the correct answer from the code given below :

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 4 only (Correct Answer)
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: ***1 and 4 only*** - **External cephalic version (ECV)** is generally contraindicated in pregnancy complicated by heart disease because the procedure can induce uterine contractions, maternal stress, and potential hemodynamic instability, which may precipitate cardiac decompensation in susceptible patients. - **Prophylactic intravenous methergine (methylergonovine)** is **absolutely contraindicated** in patients with heart disease due to its potent **vasoconstrictive effects** leading to increased systemic vascular resistance, hypertension, and elevated afterload, which can precipitate acute cardiac failure or pulmonary edema. *1 only* - This option incorrectly identifies only ECV as contraindicated while missing the important contraindication of **methergine**, which is strongly contraindicated due to its cardiovascular effects. - Methergine-induced vasoconstriction can cause dangerous hemodynamic changes in cardiac patients. *1 and 3 only* - While ECV is contraindicated, **corrective cardiac surgery** is NOT contraindicated during pregnancy when indicated for maternal survival or significant functional improvement. - Cardiac surgery can be safely performed during pregnancy (ideally in second trimester) with cardiopulmonary bypass when maternal benefit outweighs risks, making this a potential therapeutic intervention rather than a contraindication. *1, 2, 3 and 4* - **LSCS (Lower Segment Cesarean Section)** is NOT contraindicated in heart disease; in fact, it is often the **preferred mode of delivery** in severe cardiac conditions (NYHA Class III-IV) to avoid the hemodynamic stress of prolonged labor and bearing down efforts. - Similarly, corrective cardiac surgery is not contraindicated when medically necessary.

Question 999: The perinatal complications of a diabetic pregnancy include : 1. Small for Gestational Age baby 2. Stillbirth 3. Hypoglycaemia 4. Respiratory distress syndrome Select the correct answer from the code given below :

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***2 and 3 only*** - **Stillbirth** is a major perinatal complication of diabetic pregnancy due to placental insufficiency, fetal hyperglycemia, and maternal ketoacidosis, occurring in up to 2-5% of poorly controlled cases. - **Neonatal hypoglycemia** occurs in 25-40% of infants of diabetic mothers due to fetal hyperinsulinemia. After delivery, the sudden withdrawal of maternal glucose supply while fetal insulin levels remain elevated leads to profound hypoglycemia within 1-2 hours of birth. - While **respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)** is also a recognized complication (due to delayed surfactant production from hyperinsulinemia), this question focuses on the most characteristic and immediate life-threatening perinatal complications requiring urgent monitoring and intervention. *1 and 2 only* - **Small for Gestational Age (SGA)** is NOT a typical complication of diabetic pregnancy. The classic presentation is **macrosomia** (Large for Gestational Age) due to fetal hyperinsulinemia driving increased glucose uptake and fat deposition. - SGA may occur in pre-gestational diabetes with severe vasculopathy, but this represents a minority of cases and is not the typical pattern. *1 and 4 only* - **Small for Gestational Age** is incorrect for the reasons stated above - diabetic pregnancies characteristically produce macrosomic infants, not growth-restricted ones. - **Respiratory distress syndrome** is indeed a complication, but the inclusion of the incorrect statement 1 makes this option wrong. *1 and 3 only* - **Small for Gestational Age** is fundamentally inconsistent with the pathophysiology of diabetic pregnancy, which involves fetal hyperglycemia and hyperinsulinemia leading to excessive growth. - **Hypoglycemia** is correct, but this option is invalidated by the inclusion of SGA.

Question 1000: Which of the following hormones is the best indicator of maternal-fetal placental unit?

A. Progesterone
B. Estriol (Correct Answer)
C. Human placental lactogen
D. Prolactin

Explanation: ***Estriol*** - **Estriol** is the **best indicator of the maternal-fetal placental unit** because its production requires the integrated function of **all three components**: - **Fetal adrenal glands** produce DHEA-S (dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate) - **Fetal liver** performs 16α-hydroxylation of DHEA-S - **Placenta** converts 16α-OH-DHEA-S to estriol through aromatization - Any dysfunction in the fetus, placenta, or their interaction will be reflected in **decreased estriol levels**, making it the most comprehensive indicator of the **complete fetoplacental unit**. - Clinically used to assess fetal well-being, especially in conditions like **placental insufficiency** or **fetal adrenal hypoplasia**. *Human placental lactogen* - **hPL** is solely produced by the **syncytiotrophoblast** of the placenta and reflects **placental mass** and function. - While it correlates with placental viability, it does **not require fetal contribution** and therefore only indicates **placental function alone**, not the integrated maternal-fetal-placental unit. - Useful for assessing placental sufficiency but less comprehensive than estriol for evaluating the complete unit. *Progesterone* - **Progesterone** is initially produced by the **corpus luteum** (first 8-10 weeks) and later by the **placenta**. - Essential for maintaining pregnancy through uterine relaxation and endometrial support, but its levels reflect **placental function** rather than the integrated fetal-placental unit. - Does not require fetal contribution for its synthesis. *Prolactin* - **Prolactin** is primarily produced by the **maternal anterior pituitary gland**, with smaller amounts from the decidua. - Involved in mammary gland development and lactation preparation but is **not a product of the fetoplacental unit**. - Does not indicate the functioning of the maternal-fetal placental unit.

Practice by Chapter

Fetal Assessment Techniques

Practice Questions

Hypertensive Disorders in Pregnancy

Practice Questions

Intrauterine Growth Restriction

Practice Questions

Multiple Gestation

Practice Questions

Rh Isoimmunization and Other Blood Group Incompatibilities

Practice Questions

Intrauterine Fetal Therapy

Practice Questions

Prenatal Diagnosis and Genetic Counseling

Practice Questions

Placental Abnormalities

Practice Questions

Preterm Labor and Delivery

Practice Questions

Management of Medical Disorders in Pregnancy

Practice Questions

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