Labor and Delivery — MCQs

Labor and Delivery Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 951: Common clinical presentations of moderate to severe abruption are all EXCEPT:

A. Uterine tenderness
B. Prolonged labour (Correct Answer)
C. Fetal distress
D. Unexplained preterm labour

Explanation: ***Prolonged labour*** - While **placental abruption** can sometimes lead to **uterine dysfunction** and difficulties in labor progression, **prolonged labor** is *not* a characteristic or common clinical presentation of an abruption itself. - The primary concerns with abruption are **hemorrhage**, **fetal compromise**, and rapid progression to delivery due to **uterine irritability**. *Uterine tenderness* - **Uterine tenderness** is a classic and common sign of **placental abruption**, resulting from the extravasation of blood into the myometrium. - This tenderness is often localized over the site of the abruption and can range from mild to severe depending on the extent of the blood collection. *Unexplained preterm labour* - **Placental abruption** is a known cause of **preterm labor**, often presenting as uterine contractions and pain. - The irritation of the uterus by blood and the presence of **prostaglandins** released during the abruption process can trigger premature contractions. *Fetal distress* - **Fetal distress**, indicated by **non-reassuring fetal heart rate patterns** like decelerations or bradycardia, is a common and serious consequence of **placental abruption**. - This occurs due to the reduction in **placental perfusion** and oxygen exchange between the mother and fetus.

Question 952: Which of the following information are provided by partograph? 1. Colour of liquor 2. Uterine contractions with duration and frequency 3. Dilatation of cervix Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 (Correct Answer)
D. 1 and 2 only

Explanation: ***1, 2 and 3*** - A **partograph** is a composite graphical record of key maternal and fetal parameters during labor, specifically designed to monitor the progress of labor and to identify deviations from normal. - It includes charting the **colour of liquor**, **uterine contractions (frequency and duration)**, and **cervical dilatation** to assess the progression of labor. *2 and 3 only* - This option is incorrect because the partograph also records the **colour of liquor** in addition to uterine contractions and cervical dilatation. - The colour of liquor provides vital information about fetal well-being, such as the presence of **meconium**, which indicates fetal distress. *1 and 3 only* - This option is incorrect because the partograph also records the **frequency and duration of uterine contractions**, which are crucial for assessing the power and effectiveness of labor. - Uterine contractions are fundamental to the progress of cervical dilatation and fetal descent. *1 and 2 only* - This option is incorrect because the partograph also records the **dilatation of the cervix**, which is the primary indicator of the progress of the first stage of labor. - The rate of cervical dilatation is crucial for determining if labor is progressing normally or if there is a **protracted labor** requiring intervention.

Question 953: The components of partograph are all EXCEPT:

A. Fetal heart rate
B. Time
C. Maternal respiratory rate (Correct Answer)
D. Maternal urine analysis

Explanation: ***Maternal respiratory rate*** - While important for overall maternal well-being, **maternal respiratory rate** is not a standard component recorded on a partograph. - The partograph primarily focuses on monitoring fetal well-being, cervical dilation, and uterine contractions to track labor progress. *Fetal heart rate* - **Fetal heart rate** is a crucial component of the partograph, regularly plotted to assess fetal well-being and identify signs of distress. - It helps in detecting fetal hypoxia and guiding interventions if necessary during labor. *Time* - **Time** is a fundamental axis on the partograph, allowing for the plotting of all other parameters against a temporal scale. - This enables the healthcare provider to visualize the progression of labor and identify deviations from normal patterns. *Maternal urine analysis* - **Maternal urine analysis** for protein, acetone, or glucose is a standard component of the partograph. - It helps in assessing maternal hydration status and detecting potential complications like pre-eclampsia or gestational diabetes that might impact labor or fetal health.

Question 954: Which one of the following is NOT a component of active phase in the partograph?

A. Acceleration phase
B. Phase of deceleration
C. Phase of maximum slope
D. Phase of expulsion (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Phase of expulsion*** - The **phase of expulsion** (or the second stage of labor) begins after the cervix is fully dilated and ends with the birth of the baby. - While it immediately follows the active phase, it is not considered a component of the **active phase** itself, which primarily focuses on cervical dilation progress. *Acceleration phase* - The **acceleration phase** is an early part of the active phase of labor where the rate of cervical dilation begins to increase. - It marks the transition from the latent phase to the more rapid dilation characteristic of active labor. *Phase of deceleration* - The **phase of deceleration** occurs towards the end of the active phase, just before full cervical dilation, where the rate of dilation slows down. - This phase is typically associated with the advancing fetal head encountering the pelvic floor. *Phase of maximum slope* - The **phase of maximum slope** (or maximum ascent) is the steepest part of the active phase, where cervical dilation occurs at its fastest rate. - This is the most efficient period of cervical change during labor.

Question 955: Successful external cephalic version of breech presentation is likely in case all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Non engaged breech
B. Adequate amniotic fluid
C. Breech with extended legs (Correct Answer)
D. Complete breech with sacroanterior position

Explanation: ***Breech with extended legs*** - An extended leg presentation (frank breech) makes successful external cephalic version **less likely** because the **fetal legs splint the fetus**, creating a rigid, elongated configuration that resists rotation. - The extended posture restricts fetal mobility necessary for successful manipulation. - Frank breech is the **least favorable type** for ECV success. *Non engaged breech* - A **non-engaged breech** presentation indicates the fetal buttocks or feet are not yet fixed in the maternal pelvis, allowing **greater mobility** and making successful external cephalic version **more likely**. - Lack of engagement means there is ample space for the fetus to turn. *Adequate amniotic fluid* - **Adequate amniotic fluid** provides essential space and cushioning for the fetus to move, which is crucial for a successful external cephalic version. - It reduces friction and allows for easier manipulation of the fetus during the procedure. - Oligohydramnios is a relative contraindication to ECV. *Complete breech with sacroanterior position* - A **complete breech** (with flexed hips and knees) is generally **more favorable** for external cephalic version compared to frank breech, as the flexed posture creates a more compact, mobile configuration. - The fetal position (sacroanterior, sacrotransverse, or sacroposterior) has less impact on ECV success than the **type of breech presentation** (complete vs. frank). - Complete breech allows easier manipulation than the rigid frank breech configuration.

Question 956: Which one of the following is NOT a method of management of Deep Transverse Arrest with the living fetus?

A. Caesarean section
B. Manual rotation and application of forceps
C. Delivery by application of forceps to the unrotated head
D. Delivery by ventouse (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Delivery by ventouse*** - **Vacuum extraction (ventouse)** requires the fetal head to be engaged and the leading part to be no higher than 1/5th above the symphysis pubis, and it does not allow for rotation once applied. - In a **deep transverse arrest**, the fetal head is unrotated, and direct application of a ventouse without prior rotation is unsafe and ineffective, as it would apply traction in an improper direction, risking scalp injury without resolving the arrest. *Caesarean section* - **Caesarean section** is a viable and often necessary option for deep transverse arrest, especially when other rotational or instrumental delivery methods are contraindicated or unsuccessful. - It ensures safe delivery for both mother and fetus in cases of **cephalopelvic disproportion** or failed operative vaginal delivery. *Manual rotation and application of forceps* - **Manual rotation** involves an obstetrician manually turning the fetal head from the transverse to the occipito-anterior or posterior position. - After successful manual rotation, **forceps** can then be applied to facilitate vaginal delivery, provided there are no other contraindications. *Delivery by application of forceps to the unrotated head* - **Kielland's forceps** are specifically designed for rotation and delivery in cases of **deep transverse arrest** and can be applied to an unrotated head to achieve rotation without prior manual intervention. - While other types of forceps typically require the head to be in an occipito-anterior position, Kielland's forceps allow for the necessary rotation before traction is applied, making it a suitable method for managing deep transverse arrest.

Question 957: Based on the educational diagram showing different degrees of perineal tears, which degree involves only the perineal skin and vaginal mucosa without affecting the underlying muscle?

A. 2nd degree
B. 3rd degree
C. 4th degree
D. 1st degree (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***1st degree*** - Involves only the **perineal skin** and **vaginal mucosa** without affecting underlying muscle tissue. - The **pelvic floor muscles (PFM)** remain completely intact, making this the most superficial type of perineal tear. *2nd degree* - Extends deeper to involve the **perineal muscles** including the pelvic floor muscles, but spares the anal sphincter. - Requires **muscle repair** in addition to skin closure, making it more complex than 1st degree tears. *3rd degree* - Involves the **anal sphincter complex** (external and/or internal anal sphincter) extending toward the anus. - Requires specialized **sphincter reconstruction** to prevent future fecal incontinence complications. *4th degree* - The most severe tear extending through the **anal sphincter** and into the **rectal mucosa**. - Requires **multilayer repair** including rectal mucosa, sphincter complex, and perineal tissues to restore anatomy.

Question 958: Which of the following is not a contraindication for External Cephalic Version (ECV)?

A. Placenta previa
B. Twin pregnancy
C. PROM (Premature Rupture of Membranes)
D. Primigravida (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Primigravida*** - Being a **primigravida** (first pregnancy) is not a contraindication for ECV, though it might be associated with a slightly lower success rate compared to multiparous women due to a less pliable uterus. - While it may indicate a potentially more challenging ECV due to higher uterine tone, it does not preclude the procedure if other conditions are favorable. *Placenta previa* - **Placenta previa** is a contraindication because the manipulation of the uterus during ECV could dislodge the placenta, leading to **severe hemorrhage** and potential fetal compromise. - This condition involves the placenta covering the cervical opening, making any uterine intervention risky. *Twin pregnancy* - **Twin pregnancy** is a contraindication as ECV is generally not recommended in multiple gestations due to increased complexity and risk of complications. - The risk of **umbilical cord entanglement**, disruption of twin positioning, and potential harm to either fetus makes ECV unsafe in twin pregnancies. *PROM (Premature Rupture of Membranes)* - **Premature Rupture of Membranes (PROM)** is a contraindication due to the increased risk of uterine infection and **cord prolapse** during manipulation. - Once membranes are ruptured, the natural cushioning provided by the amniotic fluid is lost, making ECV potentially traumatic for both the mother and the fetus.

Question 959: A pregnant female presents with active herpetic lesions on the vulva. What is the most appropriate management?

A. Wait & watch
B. Acyclovir & elective cesarean section (C-section) (Correct Answer)
C. Acyclovir & allow spontaneous progression of labor
D. Induction of labor

Explanation: ***Acyclovir & elective cesarean section (C-section)*** - Active **genital herpetic lesions** at the time of delivery pose a significant risk of transmitting **herpes simplex virus (HSV)** to the neonate. - **Acyclovir** can help suppress viral replication, but a **cesarean section** is necessary to prevent direct contact with the lesions during birth, which could lead to severe neonatal HSV infection. *Wait & watch* - This approach is inappropriate due to the high risk of **vertical transmission** of HSV to the neonate if lesions are active during vaginal delivery, potentially causing life-threatening complications. - **Neonatal HSV** can result in significant morbidity and mortality, including neurological damage and disseminated disease. *Acyclovir & allow spontaneous progression of labor* - While **acyclovir** can reduce viral load, it does not completely eliminate the risk of transmission from active lesions during a vaginal birth. - The primary concern is protecting the neonate from direct contact with the **active lesions** in the birth canal. *Induction of labor* - **Induction of labor** does not mitigate the risk of **vertical transmission** from active lesions during a vaginal delivery. - The focus should be on preventing contact with the lesions, not on expediting vaginal birth once active lesions are present.

Question 960: After delivering a baby boy, a 25 -year-old mother developed acute PPH and hypovolemic shock, and major blood transfusion occurred. All of the following are complications of blood transfusion except?

A. Hypothermia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hypokalemia (Correct Answer)
D. Hypomagnesemia

Explanation: ***Hypokalemia*** - **Hypokalemia is NOT a typical complication of massive blood transfusion**. In fact, massive transfusion is characteristically associated with **hyperkalemia**, not hypokalemia. - **Stored blood** contains high levels of extracellular potassium due to **red blood cell lysis** during storage (potassium levels can reach 30-50 mEq/L in units stored >21 days). - Rapid transfusion of multiple units delivers a significant **potassium load**, making **hyperkalemia** the expected electrolyte abnormality. - While hypokalemia could theoretically occur later due to **alkalosis from citrate metabolism** or during the **rewarming/correction phase**, this is **indirect, uncommon, and not a recognized acute complication** of the transfusion itself. - Therefore, hypokalemia is the exception among the listed options. *Hypothermia* - **Direct and common complication** when cold blood products (stored at 1-6°C) are rapidly infused without adequate warming. - Can cause **coagulopathy**, cardiac arrhythmias, decreased drug metabolism, and leftward shift of oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve. - Prevention requires use of **blood warmers** during massive transfusion. *Hypocalcemia* - **Very common complication** of massive transfusion due to **citrate toxicity**. - **Citrate** (anticoagulant in stored blood) chelates ionized calcium in the recipient's circulation. - Normally metabolized by the liver, but rapid transfusion overwhelms hepatic metabolism, leading to **symptomatic hypocalcemia**. - Can cause **cardiac dysfunction, hypotension, and prolonged QT interval**. *Hypomagnesemia* - Can occur with massive transfusion as **magnesium is also chelated by citrate**, similar to calcium. - Less commonly recognized than hypocalcemia but documented in massive transfusion protocols. - Can contribute to **cardiac arrhythmias and neuromuscular irritability**.

Practice by Chapter

Physiology of Labor

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Stages of Labor and Normal Progression

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Fetal Monitoring Techniques

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Pain Management in Labor

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Induction and Augmentation of Labor

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Operative Delivery (Forceps and Vacuum)

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Cesarean Section: Indications and Techniques

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Dystocia and Abnormal Labor Patterns

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Obstetric Emergencies

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Postpartum Hemorrhage Management

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