Labor and Delivery — MCQs
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Which of the following is NOT a method of second Trimester abortion?
Consider the following presentations: 1. Brow presentation 2. Left mento anterior position 3. Occipito posterior position 4. Breech presentation In which of the above Vaginal delivery is NOT possible?
For vaginal breech delivery, ideal selection criteria would include: 1. Fetus not compromised 2. Adequate pelvis 3. Flexed breech presentation 4. Estimated fetal weight < 3.5 kg Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A 25 year old, G2P1L1 came with amenorrhoea of two and half months followed by bleeding PV and pain abdomen. On examination cervical OS is open with slight bleeding. The uterus is 10 weeks size with no tenderness in the fornices. The probable clinical diagnosis is:
In case of Labour complicated with cord prolapse, which of the following statements are correct? 1. Reposition the patient in exaggerated Sims position 2. To replace the cord in the vagina 3. To replace the cord inside the uterus 4. Early amniotomy can prevent cord prolapse Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Which of the following are the hypotheses for the onset of Labor? 1. Uterine distension 2. Activation of fetal hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis 3. Increase in prostaglandins 4. Increase in serum calcium levels Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Which of the following are the clinical features of septic abortion? 1. Persistent tachycardia ≥ 90 bpm 2. Impaired mental status 3. Hypothermia
Which of the following are indications of vaginal examinations during labour? 1. To stretch the vagina intermittently 2. At the onset of labour 3. To monitor progress of labour 4. Following rupture of membranes
Which of the following are the pre-requisites of outlet forceps delivery? 1. Bladder should be empty 2. Membranes should be intact 3. Cervix should be fully dilated 4. Fetal skull has reached level of pelvic floor
In the mechanism of normal labour the engaging transverse diameter is
Labor and Delivery Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 921: Which of the following is NOT a method of second Trimester abortion?
- A. Hysterotomy
- B. Mifepristone and PGE1
- C. PGE2 analog
- D. Intra-amniotic KCl instillation (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Intra-amniotic KCl instillation*** - Intra-amniotic KCl instillation is **NOT an abortion method** but rather a **feticide procedure** used to induce fetal demise before the actual termination. - It involves injecting potassium chloride directly into the fetal heart or amniotic sac to cause fetal asystole, and **must be followed by another method** (medical induction or D&E) to complete the abortion. - It is used primarily in **late second trimester and beyond** when legally or ethically required to ensure fetal demise prior to expulsion, but is **not a standalone abortion method**. *Hysterotomy* - Hysterotomy is a **surgical method** of abortion that involves making an incision in the uterus (similar to cesarean section) to remove the fetus. - While rarely used today due to **higher maternal morbidity** compared to D&E or medical methods, it **remains a recognized second-trimester abortion method**. - It may be considered in specific situations such as failed medical abortion, cervical pathology preventing D&E, or when other methods are contraindicated. *Mifepristone and PGE1* - This combination is a **standard medical abortion method** for the second trimester. - Mifepristone (antiprogestogen) sensitizes the uterus to prostaglandins, and PGE1 (misoprostol) induces uterine contractions and cervical ripening. - It is **safe, effective, and commonly used** for second-trimester medical termination. *PGE2 analog* - **Prostaglandin E2 analogs** (such as dinoprostone) are established methods for second-trimester abortion. - They induce uterine contractions and cervical ripening, and can be administered vaginally, extra-amniotically, or intravenously. - They are a **standard medical induction method** for second-trimester termination.
Question 922: Consider the following presentations: 1. Brow presentation 2. Left mento anterior position 3. Occipito posterior position 4. Breech presentation In which of the above Vaginal delivery is NOT possible?
- A. 1, 2 and 3
- B. 4 only
- C. 1 only (Correct Answer)
- D. 1 and 3 only
Explanation: ***1 only*** - A **brow presentation** presents the fetal head at an unfavorable diameter (**mentovertical diameter**), making vaginal delivery impossible due to **mechanical obstruction**. - With the brow presenting, the head cannot adequately mold or engage in the maternal pelvis, necessitating a **cesarean section** for safe delivery. *1, 2 and 3* - While **brow presentation** (1) is not amenable to vaginal delivery, **left mento anterior position** (2) generally allows for successful vaginal delivery. - **Occipito posterior position** (3) can often be delivered vaginally, sometimes requiring rotation, making this option incorrect. *4 only* - **Breech presentation** (4) can sometimes be delivered vaginally, although it carries higher risks and often warrants a **cesarean section**, but it is not universally impossible. - This option incorrectly suggests that only breech presentation is impossible for vaginal delivery, while brow presentation is a definitive contraindication. *1 and 3 only* - **Brow presentation** (1) is indeed a contraindication for vaginal delivery. - However, **occipito posterior position** (3) does not inherently preclude vaginal delivery, as many cases can be delivered vaginally, making this option incorrect.
Question 923: For vaginal breech delivery, ideal selection criteria would include: 1. Fetus not compromised 2. Adequate pelvis 3. Flexed breech presentation 4. Estimated fetal weight < 3.5 kg Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A. 2 and 4 only
- B. 1, 3 and 4 only
- C. 1, 2, 3 and 4 (Correct Answer)
- D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation: ***1, 2, 3 and 4*** - All listed criteria (fetus not compromised, adequate pelvis, **flexed breech presentation**, and estimated fetal weight < 3.5 kg) are considered **ideal selection criteria** for a safe vaginal breech delivery. - **Flexed (frank) breech** with hips flexed and knees extended is the **most favorable type** for vaginal delivery, as it presents the smallest diameter and has the lowest risk of cord prolapse. - While many institutions now favor elective cesarean section for breech presentations, these criteria represent conditions under which a **vaginal delivery can be safely attempted** with minimal risk. *2 and 4 only* - This option is incomplete as it correctly identifies adequate pelvis and estimated fetal weight < 3.5 kg but omits other crucial factors like **fetal well-being** and the **type of breech presentation**. - A successful vaginal breech delivery also requires the fetus to be **uncompromised** and ideally in a **flexed (frank) breech** presentation. *1, 3 and 4 only* - This option overlooks the critical importance of an **adequate maternal pelvis**, which is fundamental for allowing the passage of the fetus during vaginal delivery regardless of fetal presentation. - While fetal status, presentation, and weight are important, a **contracted or inadequate pelvis** would contraindicate vaginal delivery. *1, 2 and 3 only* - This option excludes the **estimated fetal weight** being less than 3.5 kg, which is a significant factor in assessing the feasibility of vaginal breech delivery. - Larger fetuses (typically >3.5-4 kg) have a **higher risk of birth trauma** and **head entrapment** during vaginal breech delivery, even with an adequate pelvis and favorable presentation.
Question 924: A 25 year old, G2P1L1 came with amenorrhoea of two and half months followed by bleeding PV and pain abdomen. On examination cervical OS is open with slight bleeding. The uterus is 10 weeks size with no tenderness in the fornices. The probable clinical diagnosis is:
- A. Inevitable abortion (Correct Answer)
- B. Incomplete abortion
- C. Missed abortion
- D. Ectopic pregnancy
Explanation: ***Inevitable abortion*** - The presence of **amenorrhea** followed by **vaginal bleeding** and **abdominal pain**, with an **open cervical os**, indicates that the abortion process cannot be halted. - Critically, there is **no history of passage of products of conception**, which means the abortion is inevitable but has not yet occurred. - The uterus size being consistent with **10 weeks of gestation** confirms an intrauterine pregnancy in the process of being expelled. *Incomplete abortion* - This diagnosis also involves vaginal bleeding and an open cervical os, but it is characterized by the **partial expulsion of products of conception**. - The key differentiator is that incomplete abortion requires **history or evidence of tissue passage**, which is not mentioned in this clinical scenario. - In inevitable abortion, the os is open and bleeding is present, but expulsion has not yet begun. *Missed abortion* - A missed abortion involves fetal demise without symptoms like bleeding or pain, and a **closed cervical os**. - This patient presents with active bleeding and pain, and an open cervical os, which contradicts the features of a missed abortion. - The uterus may be smaller than expected for dates in missed abortion. *Ectopic pregnancy* - Although an ectopic pregnancy can cause amenorrhea, vaginal bleeding, and abdominal pain, the uterus in an ectopic pregnancy is typically **smaller than expected for gestational age** or normal in size, and there is often **significant adnexal tenderness or mass**. - The finding of a **10-week sized uterus** strongly suggests an intrauterine pregnancy rather than ectopic, and the absence of adnexal tenderness makes ectopic pregnancy unlikely.
Question 925: In case of Labour complicated with cord prolapse, which of the following statements are correct? 1. Reposition the patient in exaggerated Sims position 2. To replace the cord in the vagina 3. To replace the cord inside the uterus 4. Early amniotomy can prevent cord prolapse Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A. 1 only (Correct Answer)
- B. 1 and 2 only
- C. 3 and 4 only
- D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation: ***Correct: 1 only*** **Statement 1 - Reposition the patient in exaggerated Sims position** ✓ - **Correct** - Immediate repositioning (knee-chest, Trendelenburg, or exaggerated Sims position) is crucial to reduce pressure on the prolapsed cord and relieve compression - This helps displace the presenting part away from the cord using gravity **Statement 2 - To replace the cord in the vagina** ✗ - **Incorrect** - Manipulation or replacement of the prolapsed cord is **contraindicated** as it can cause vasospasm and further compromise fetal circulation - The correct approach is to **elevate the presenting part manually** (pushing it up off the cord) while keeping the cord moist and warm, NOT to reposition the cord itself **Statement 3 - To replace the cord inside the uterus** ✗ - **Incorrect** - This is contraindicated as it carries high risk of uterine infection, cord trauma, and vasospasm - Does not reliably prevent recurrence of prolapse **Statement 4 - Early amniotomy can prevent cord prolapse** ✗ - **Incorrect** - Early amniotomy actually **increases** the risk of cord prolapse, especially when the presenting part is not well-engaged - It removes the cushioning effect of forewaters that help keep the cord in place **Correct management of cord prolapse includes:** - Immediate repositioning (Trendelenburg/knee-chest position) - Manual elevation of presenting part to relieve cord compression - Keeping the prolapsed cord moist and warm - Avoiding cord manipulation - Emergency cesarean delivery or instrumental delivery if feasible *Incorrect: 1 and 2 only* - While statement 1 is correct, statement 2 (replacing the cord in vagina) is medically incorrect and contraindicated *Incorrect: 3 and 4 only* - Both statements are incorrect as explained above *Incorrect: 1, 2, 3 and 4* - Only statement 1 is correct; statements 2, 3, and 4 are all incorrect
Question 926: Which of the following are the hypotheses for the onset of Labor? 1. Uterine distension 2. Activation of fetal hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis 3. Increase in prostaglandins 4. Increase in serum calcium levels Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A. 1 and 3 only
- B. 2, 3 and 4
- C. 1, 2 and 4
- D. 1, 2 and 3 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***1, 2 and 3*** - The **uterine distension hypothesis** suggests that the stretching of the uterus or cervix beyond a certain point triggers labor contractions, similar to how stretching muscle fibers can induce contraction. - The **activation of the fetal hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis** is believed to play a crucial role, as the fetal adrenal glands mature and produce cortisol and dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate (DHEA-S), which initiate changes in placental hormone production. These changes include a decrease in progesterone and an increase in estrogen, making the uterus more sensitive to contractions. - An **increase in prostaglandins** (PGE2 & PGF2α) is well-established in initiating and maintaining labor. Prostaglandins cause cervical ripening and promote uterine contractions, contributing significantly to the onset of labor. *1 and 3 only* - This option correctly identifies uterine distension and increased prostaglandins but omits the crucial role of the **activation of the fetal HPA axis**, which is a significant factor in signaling the readiness for birth. - The fetal HPA axis initiates hormonal changes that contribute to uterine contractility and cervical ripening, making its exclusion incomplete. *2, 3 and 4* - This option correctly includes activation of the fetal HPA axis and increased prostaglandins, but it incorrectly includes an **increase in serum calcium levels** as a primary hypothesis for the onset of labor. - While calcium is essential for muscle contraction in general, its significant increase as a direct trigger for labor onset is not a recognized standalone hypothesis like the others. *1, 2 and 4* - This option correctly includes uterine distension and activation of the fetal HPA axis but **incorrectly includes an increase in serum calcium levels** as a primary hypothesis for the onset of labor. - It also **omits the critical role of increased prostaglandins**, which are well-known to be directly involved in cervical ripening and uterine contractions during labor.
Question 927: Which of the following are the clinical features of septic abortion? 1. Persistent tachycardia ≥ 90 bpm 2. Impaired mental status 3. Hypothermia
- A. 1 and 3 only
- B. 1, 2 and 3 (Correct Answer)
- C. 2 and 3 only
- D. 1 and 2 only
Explanation: ***1, 2 and 3*** - **Septic abortion** is a severe infection following an abortion, often presenting with systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) criteria. - Clinical features such as **persistent tachycardia** (heart rate ≥ 90 bpm), **impaired mental status**, and even **hypothermia** (or fever) are indicators of severe infection and sepsis. *1 and 3 only* - While **persistent tachycardia** and **hypothermia** are indeed clinical features of septic abortion, this option is incomplete as it excludes **impaired mental status**. - **Impaired mental status** is a crucial sign of systemic compromise and organ dysfunction in sepsis. *2 and 3 only* - This option incorrectly omits **persistent tachycardia**, which is a common and important sign of systemic infection and fever in septic abortion. - **Tachycardia** is part of the objective criteria for recognizing sepsis and SIRS. *1 and 2 only* - This option is incomplete as it misses **hypothermia**, which can occur in severe sepsis, particularly in immunocompromised patients or those with severe bloodstream infections. - **Hypothermia** indicates a dysregulated host response to infection, just as fever does.
Question 928: Which of the following are indications of vaginal examinations during labour? 1. To stretch the vagina intermittently 2. At the onset of labour 3. To monitor progress of labour 4. Following rupture of membranes
- A. 1, 3 and 4
- B. 1, 2 and 4
- C. 2, 3 and 4 (Correct Answer)
- D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: ***2, 3 and 4*** * Regular vaginal examinations are crucial for **monitoring the progress of labour**, assessing cervical dilation, effacement, and fetal station. * Examinations at the **onset of labour** establish a baseline for progress, and after **rupture of membranes**, they are important to check for **cord prolapse** and confirm fetal presentation. * *1, 3 and 4* * **Stretching the vagina intermittently** is not a standard indication for vaginal examination in labour. Labour progress is assessed, not physically hastened by stretching. * While monitoring progress and examining after membrane rupture are correct indications, the inclusion of "stretching the vagina" makes this option incorrect. * *1, 2 and 4* * Similar to the previous option, including **stretching the vagina intermittently** as an indication is incorrect. * Vaginal examinations are for assessment, not for mechanically dilating the vagina. * *1, 2 and 3* * This option again incorrectly includes **stretching the vagina intermittently** as an indication. * While examinations at the onset and for monitoring progress are valid, the presence of an incorrect indication makes the entire option invalid.
Question 929: Which of the following are the pre-requisites of outlet forceps delivery? 1. Bladder should be empty 2. Membranes should be intact 3. Cervix should be fully dilated 4. Fetal skull has reached level of pelvic floor
- A. 1, 2 and 4
- B. 1, 3 and 4 (Correct Answer)
- C. 1, 2 and 3
- D. 2, 3 and 4
Explanation: ***1, 3 and 4*** - For an **outlet forceps delivery**, the **bladder must be empty** to prevent trauma during instrumentation and to create more space in the pelvis. - A **fully dilated cervix** (10 cm) is an absolute prerequisite, ensuring that the fetal head can pass without causing cervical lacerations. The **fetal skull must have reached the pelvic floor**, indicating the head is at or beyond +2 station, and the sagittal suture is in the anteroposterior diameter. *1, 2 and 4* - While an **empty bladder** and the **fetal skull at the pelvic floor** are prerequisites, the **membranes should not be intact** for forceps delivery. - Intact membranes would require artificial rupture (amniotomy) before applying forceps to avoid membrane stripping or fetal injury. *1, 2 and 3* - An **empty bladder** and **fully dilated cervix** are essential, but **intact membranes** are not a prerequisite, as they must be ruptured for a safe forceps application. - The fetal head must also be at the **level of the pelvic floor**, which is missing from this option. *2, 3 and 4* - While a **fully dilated cervix** and the **fetal skull at the pelvic floor** are necessary, **intact membranes** are not desirable for forceps delivery, and an **empty bladder** is a crucial missing prerequisite. - Omitting the requirement for an **empty bladder** significantly increases the risk of maternal injury.
Question 930: In the mechanism of normal labour the engaging transverse diameter is
- A. Bimastoid diameter (7.5 cm)
- B. Biparietal diameter (9.5 cm) (Correct Answer)
- C. Suboccipitofrontal diameter (10 cm)
- D. Suboccipitobregmatic diameter (9.5 cm)
Explanation: ***Biparietal diameter (9.5 cm)*** - In normal labor, with the fetus in a **flexed attitude**, the **biparietal diameter** is the widest transverse diameter of the fetal head that engages in the maternal pelvis. - This diameter measures approximately **9.5 cm** and indicates the distance between the two parietal eminences. *Bimastoid diameter (7.5 cm)* - The **bimastoid diameter** measures the widest transverse diameter at the base of the skull, going from one mastoid process to the other. - At **7.5 cm**, it is too small to be the primary engaging transverse diameter of the fetal head in normal labor, which involves the broader cranial vault. *Suboccipitofrontal diameter (10 cm)* - The **suboccipitofrontal diameter** is typically the engaging diameter when the fetal head is in a **deflexed attitude** (e.g., military presentation). - This diameter measures approximately **10 cm**, indicating moderate extension, which is not characteristic of normal labor where good flexion is expected. *Suboccipitobregmatic diameter (9.5 cm)* - The **suboccipitobregmatic diameter** is the smallest and most favorable anteroposterior diameter for engagement when the fetal head is **well-flexed**. - While it also measures **9.5 cm**, it is an **anteroposterior diameter**, not a transverse diameter, and hence not the answer to the question regarding transverse engaging diameter.
Practice by Chapter
Physiology of Labor
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Stages of Labor and Normal Progression
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Fetal Monitoring Techniques
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Pain Management in Labor
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Induction and Augmentation of Labor
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Operative Delivery (Forceps and Vacuum)
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Cesarean Section: Indications and Techniques
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Dystocia and Abnormal Labor Patterns
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Obstetric Emergencies
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Postpartum Hemorrhage Management
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