Labor and Delivery — MCQs

Labor and Delivery Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 811: A patient with a previous history of cesarean section is in labor and has contractions of 3/10, no fetal distress and membranes are intact. What is the next step in management?

A. Perform artificial rupture of membranes (ARM) and monitor (Correct Answer)
B. Perform a repeat cesarean section
C. Proceed with instrumental delivery
D. Oxytocin

Explanation: ***Perform artificial rupture of membranes (ARM) and monitor*** - In a patient undergoing **Trial of Labor After Cesarean (TOLAC)**, with adequate contractions (3/10) and intact membranes, **ARM may be performed** to assess amniotic fluid and facilitate closer monitoring of fetal well-being - ARM allows for **placement of internal monitors** (fetal scalp electrode and intrauterine pressure catheter) if needed for more accurate assessment during TOLAC - **Continuous electronic fetal monitoring (EFM)** is mandatory during TOLAC to detect early signs of **uterine rupture** (fetal heart rate abnormalities) or fetal distress - Once ARM is performed, close observation of labor progress and fetal status continues *Oxytocin* - While labor augmentation may be needed later, **oxytocin should be used cautiously** in TOLAC due to increased risk of **uterine hyperstimulation** and **uterine rupture** - Current contractions at 3/10 are adequate; oxytocin is reserved for **inadequate uterine contractions** or **labor dystocia** - If used, oxytocin should be at **lower doses** with careful titration in patients with prior cesarean section *Proceed with instrumental delivery* - Instrumental delivery (vacuum or forceps) is indicated only during the **second stage of labor** for specific indications such as **prolonged second stage**, **maternal exhaustion**, or **non-reassuring fetal status** - This patient is in the **first stage of labor**; instrumental delivery is not applicable at this stage *Perform a repeat cesarean section* - The patient is successfully undergoing **TOLAC** with adequate contractions and no fetal distress; immediate cesarean section is **not indicated** - Repeat cesarean section is reserved for **failed TOLAC** (arrested labor), **non-reassuring fetal heart rate patterns**, or **suspected uterine rupture** - Approximately 60-80% of appropriate TOLAC candidates achieve successful vaginal delivery

Question 812: A woman sustains a perineal tear during delivery. Examination reveals that less than 50% of the external anal sphincter is involved. Based on the classification system, what is the most appropriate description of this injury?

A. Grade 4
B. Grade 2
C. Grade 3b
D. Grade 3a (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Grade 3a*** - This is the correct classification for perineal tears involving **less than 50% of the external anal sphincter (EAS) thickness** - Grade 3 tears are classified as **Obstetric Anal Sphincter Injuries (OASI)** and require immediate recognition, specialized repair by an experienced obstetrician, and structured follow-up - The key differentiating factor is the **percentage of EAS involvement** *Grade 2* - Grade 2 tears involve the **perineal muscles** and vaginal mucosa but specifically **exclude the anal sphincter complex** - This is less severe than the scenario described, as no sphincter involvement occurs *Grade 3b* - Grade 3b represents a more severe injury with **more than 50% of the EAS thickness** torn - The clinical scenario specifies "less than 50%," making this classification incorrect *Grade 4* - Grade 4 is the most severe perineal tear, involving the **entire anal sphincter complex (both EAS and IAS)** plus disruption of the **anal epithelium or rectal mucosa** - This creates direct communication between the vagina and rectum, which is not described in this scenario

Question 813: During the management of shoulder dystocia in childbirth, which of the following is the earliest and first maneuver typically attempted?

A. Delivery of posterior arm
B. Woods corkscrew maneuver
C. McRoberts maneuver (Correct Answer)
D. Rubin maneuver

Explanation: ***McRoberts maneuver***- This is universally considered the **first-line** and **least invasive** procedure for shoulder dystocia management.- It involves sharply flexing the mother's hips against her abdomen (knees-to-chest), which rotates the **pubic symphysis** cephalad and flattens the lumbar lordosis, increasing the functional AP diameter of the pelvis.*Woods corkscrew maneuver*- This is a **second-line** rotational maneuver attempted if McRoberts and suprapubic pressure fail.- It involves applying pressure to the posterior aspect of the anterior shoulder to rotate the fetal shoulders 180 degrees.*Rubin maneuver*- This is a **second-line** rotational maneuver where the physician places fingers behind the anteriorly impacted shoulder.- The goal is to push the shoulder towards the fetal chest, rotating the shoulders into the oblique diameter.*Delivery of posterior arm*- This is a highly invasive maneuver usually reserved for when less invasive positional and rotational techniques have failed.- Successfully extracting the posterior arm significantly reduces the **bisacromial diameter**, facilitating delivery.

Question 814: A pregnant woman is being assessed for induction of labor. On vaginal examination: Cervical dilation: 2 cm, Effacement: 20%, Cervical consistency: Soft, Position: Midline, Station: -2. What is the modified Bishop Score?

A. Score 5 - Unfavorable (Correct Answer)
B. Score 7 - Favorable
C. Score 6 - Borderline
D. Score 3 - Highly unfavorable

Explanation: ***Score 5 - Unfavorable*** - This score is calculated by assigning points based on cervical parameters: **Dilation 2 cm (1 pt)**, **Effacement 20% (0 pts)**, **Consistency Soft (2 pts)**, **Position Midline (1 pt)**, and **Station -2 (1 pt)**, totaling **5 points**. - A Bishop Score of 5 or less indicates an **unfavorable cervix**, suggesting a low likelihood of successful vaginal delivery following induction without prior cervical ripening. *Score 7 - Favorable* - A score of 7 or higher is generally considered highly **favorable** for successful induction, meaning the cervix is likely to respond well to oxytocin. - To reach a score of 7, the patient would need two additional points, such as effacement of 60% (2 points) instead of 20% (0 points), or improved station. *Score 6 - Borderline* - A score of 6 is considered **borderline** or marginally favorable, but many clinicians still prefer cervical ripening before proceeding with oxytocin. - This would require an improvement in one parameter, such as the fetal station moving from -2 (1 pt) to -1 or 0 (2 pts). *Score 3 - Highly unfavorable* - A score of 3 indicates a very **unripe cervix** (e.g., firm consistency, posterior position, minimal dilation and effacement) with very low chance of successful induction. - The current patient scores 5 points with favorable features (soft consistency, midline position), making a score as low as 3 impossible with the given findings.

Question 815: A patient presents with obstructed labor, and on abdominal examination, a groove or band is palpable across the uterus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Bandl’s ring (Correct Answer)
B. Constriction ring
C. Contraction ring
D. Schroeder's ring

Explanation: ***Bandl’s ring***- This is the **pathological retraction ring** that forms in cases of prolonged **obstructed labor**, separating the thick, upper, contracted uterine segment from the thin, distended lower uterine segment.- Its presence as a palpable groove or band across the abdomen is a critical sign of **impending uterine rupture** and mandates immediate intervention.*Constriction ring*- This is a localized persistent contraction or **spasm of the circular uterine muscle fibers** occurring at any level, hindering the passage of the fetus but not necessarily indicating imminent rupture.- Unlike Bandl's ring, it is usually not a high, visible, or palpable abdominal band indicating severe obstruction and **uterine overdistention**.*Schroeder's ring*- This term is not the standardized term used to describe the **pathological retraction ring** visible externally in severe obstructed labor.- While it may sometimes be confused with terms related to cervical changes, **Bandl's ring** is the definitive diagnosis for the palpable groove in this clinical context.*Contraction ring*- This term is often used synonymously with the normal **physiological retraction ring** which forms between the active and passive segments during normal labor.- Although it involves muscle contraction, it lacks the specific **pathological significance** and height within the abdomen characteristic of Bandl’s ring in severe obstruction.

Question 816: In a case of face presentation during labor, which diameter is seen?

A. Mentobregmatic
B. Submentobregmatic (Correct Answer)
C. Occipitofrontal
D. Suboccipitobregmatic

Explanation: ***Submentobregmatic*** - In a **face presentation**, the fetal head is completely extended (deflexed), causing the face to present first in the birth canal. - The presenting diameter is the **submentobregmatic**, which measures approximately **9.5 cm** and extends from the junction of the neck and chin to the anterior fontanelle (bregma). *Mentobregmatic* - This term is sometimes used, but the precise engaging diameter in a face presentation is the **submentobregmatic** diameter. - The **mento-vertical** diameter (**14 cm**), which is the largest, is associated with a **brow presentation** and is too large for a vaginal delivery. *Suboccipitobregmatic* - This is the presenting diameter in a normal, **well-flexed vertex presentation**, which is the most common and favorable presentation. - It measures approximately **9.5 cm** and extends from the nape of the neck (subocciput) to the bregma. *Occipitofrontal* - This diameter is seen when the head is in a **military attitude** (partially deflexed), where neither flexion nor extension is complete. - It measures about **11.5 cm**, which is larger than the ideal presenting diameter and can prolong labor.

Question 817: A patient's fetal heart rate tracing is shown in the image. The tracing shows variable deceleration. What does that indicate?

A. Maternal hypotension
B. Umbilical cord compression (Correct Answer)
C. Fetal head compression
D. Uteroplacental insufficiency

Explanation: ***Umbilical cord compression*** - Variable decelerations are characterized by an **abrupt decrease** in fetal heart rate with a variable onset, duration, and shape, which is the classic sign of **umbilical cord compression**. - The compression of the umbilical cord causes a reflex **baroreceptor-mediated** slowing of the heart rate, which resolves when the compression is relieved. *Fetal head compression* - This causes **early decelerations**, which are gradual, uniform in shape, and mirror the uterine contraction. - Early decelerations are a result of a **vagal response** to increased intracranial pressure during contractions and are generally considered benign. *Uteroplacental insufficiency* - This leads to **late decelerations**, where the nadir of the deceleration occurs after the peak of the contraction. - Late decelerations signify impaired oxygen exchange at the placenta and are associated with fetal **hypoxemia**. *Maternal hypotension* - Maternal hypotension can reduce blood flow to the placenta, causing **uteroplacental insufficiency**. - This would result in **late decelerations** or potentially a **prolonged deceleration**, not the characteristic variable pattern.

Question 818: What is the importance of the following manoeuvre?

A. To rotate the shoulders during delivery
B. To protect from tearing of the perineum (Correct Answer)
C. To facilitate controlled extension of the fetal head
D. To pull the baby out faster

Explanation: ***To protect from tearing of the perineum*** - The maneuver shown, known as **guarding the perineum**, involves one hand supporting the perineal body while the other hand controls the delivery of the fetal head. - This technique allows for a slow, controlled stretching of the perineal tissues, which significantly reduces the risk of **perineal lacerations** during the second stage of labor. *To pull the baby out faster* - Applying traction to the fetal head to expedite delivery is contraindicated as it increases the risk of both maternal trauma, such as severe **perineal tears**, and fetal injury, like **brachial plexus injury**. - The goal of modern obstetrics is a controlled, gentle delivery, not a rapid one, to ensure the safety of both mother and baby. *To facilitate controlled extension of the fetal head* - While controlling the extension of the fetal head is part of the maneuver (performed by the hand on the occiput), its primary purpose is to prevent sudden expulsion, which would tear the perineum. - Therefore, controlled extension is a means to achieve the ultimate goal of **perineal protection**, making it a secondary objective of the overall maneuver shown. *To rotate the shoulders during delivery* - Rotation of the fetal shoulders, specifically to an **anteroposterior diameter**, is performed only *after* the head has been fully delivered and has undergone **restitution** (external rotation). - The image depicts the **crowning** of the fetal head, which is the stage just before the head is born and well before the shoulders are delivered.

Question 819: During the active management of the third stage of labor, which intervention is recommended to prevent postpartum hemorrhage primarily due to uterine atony?

A. Immediate administration of 20 units of undiluted oxytocin intravenously
B. Administration of uterotonic agent (oxytocin 10 units IM) within 1 minute of birth (Correct Answer)
C. Controlled cord traction with immediate removal of the placenta
D. Oxytocin 10 units IM with crowning

Explanation: ***Administration of uterotonic agent (oxytocin 10 units IM) within 1 minute of birth*** - This is the **cornerstone of active management of third stage of labor (AMTSL)** - **WHO/FIGO guidelines** recommend oxytocin 10 units IM administered within 1 minute after birth of the baby - This is the **most effective intervention** for preventing postpartum hemorrhage due to uterine atony - Reduces PPH risk by approximately **60%** - Standard dose is **10 units IM** or 5 units slow IV (over 1-2 minutes) *Immediate administration of 20 units of undiluted oxytocin intravenously* - **Dangerous practice**: 20 units IV undiluted can cause severe hypotension, cardiac arrhythmias, and cardiovascular collapse - Standard dose for IV is **5 units diluted**, given slowly over 1-2 minutes - Bolus IV oxytocin is associated with significant cardiovascular side effects *Controlled cord traction with immediate removal of the placenta* - Controlled cord traction (CCT) is part of AMTSL but is done **after signs of placental separation**, not immediately - CCT alone does not prevent uterine atony - the uterotonic agent is primary - CCT is performed with counter-traction on the uterus to prevent uterine inversion *Oxytocin 10 units IM with crowning* - Incorrect timing: oxytocin should be given **after delivery of the anterior shoulder** or within 1 minute of birth - Administration at crowning (before delivery) is not part of AMTSL protocol - May cause complications if given before full delivery of the baby

Question 820: Identify the CTG pattern?

A. Early deceleration (Correct Answer)
B. Late deceleration
C. Variable
D. Normal

Explanation: ***Early deceleration*** - This pattern is characterized by a gradual, symmetrical decrease in fetal heart rate (FHR) where the onset, nadir, and recovery of the deceleration coincide with the beginning, peak, and end of a uterine contraction, creating a **mirror image**. - Early decelerations are caused by **fetal head compression** during contractions, which elicits a vagal response. They are considered physiological and are not typically associated with fetal hypoxia or acidosis. *Late decelerations* - These are characterized by a gradual decrease in FHR where the nadir of the deceleration occurs **after the peak** of the uterine contraction, indicating a delayed response. - Late decelerations are a non-reassuring sign caused by **uteroplacental insufficiency**, suggesting impaired oxygen exchange to the fetus. *Variable* - These are abrupt, sharp drops in the FHR that are variable in shape (often V, U, or W-shaped) and have an inconsistent relationship with uterine contractions. - Variable decelerations are caused by **umbilical cord compression**, which obstructs blood flow to the fetus. *Normal* - A normal or reassuring CTG trace would have a baseline FHR between 110-160 bpm, moderate variability (5-25 bpm), and the presence of accelerations with or without early decelerations. - While early decelerations can be part of a normal picture, the question asks to identify the specific pattern of deceleration present, which is 'early deceleration'.

Practice by Chapter

Physiology of Labor

Practice Questions

Stages of Labor and Normal Progression

Practice Questions

Fetal Monitoring Techniques

Practice Questions

Pain Management in Labor

Practice Questions

Induction and Augmentation of Labor

Practice Questions

Operative Delivery (Forceps and Vacuum)

Practice Questions

Cesarean Section: Indications and Techniques

Practice Questions

Dystocia and Abnormal Labor Patterns

Practice Questions

Obstetric Emergencies

Practice Questions

Postpartum Hemorrhage Management

Practice Questions

Want unlimited practice?

Get full access to all questions, explanations, and performance tracking.

Start For Free