Labor and Delivery Practice Questions

Q: What is an indication for amnioinfusion?

In case of fetal distress. **Explanation:** Amnioinfusion is the procedure of instilling isotonic fluid (usually Normal Saline or Ringer’s Lactate) into the uterine cavity. **Why "Fetal Distress" is correct:** In the context of labor, fetal distress is often caused by **variable decelerations** on the CTG. These decelerations occur due to **umbilical cord compression**, which is frequently a result of low amniotic fluid (oligohydramnios). By performing amnioinfusion, the fluid volume is restored, cushioning the cord, relieving the compression, and improving fetal oxygenation. This reduces the need for emergency Cesarean sections. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Oligohydramnios:** While amnioinfusion is used in the presence of low fluid, "Oligohydramnios" alone is a finding, not a definitive indication. It is specifically indicated when oligohydramnios leads to complications like repetitive variable decelerations or thick meconium. * **B. Suspected renal anomalies:** Amnioinfusion is used diagnostically in the second trimester to improve ultrasound visualization of fetal anatomy (e.g., Potter’s sequence), but it is not a therapeutic indication for the anomaly itself. * **C. To facilitate labor:** Amnioinfusion does not shorten the duration of labor or assist in cervical ripening; its primary goal is fetal safety. **High-Yield NEET-PG Pearls:** 1. **Indications:** Repetitive variable decelerations (most common), thick meconium-stained liquor (to dilute it and prevent Meconium Aspiration Syndrome), and diagnostic visualization. 2. **Contraindications:** Chorioamnionitis, polyhydramnios, placental abruption, and uterine hypertonicity. 3. **Route:** Transvaginal (via IUPC) is preferred during labor; Transabdominal is used for diagnostic purposes. 4. **Fluid:** 250–500 mL of warmed saline is typically infused over 20–30 minutes.

Q: A 33-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, aborta 0, presents at 9 weeks gestational age with a history of conization for CIN one year prior. She also has a history of preterm births at 30 and 32 weeks during her last two pregnancies. What is the best step in the management of this patient?

Cervical cerclage by 12 weeks. This patient presents with a classic history of **Cervical Insufficiency**. The diagnosis is based on her obstetric history (two prior spontaneous preterm births) and a significant risk factor (history of cervical conization). ### Why Option B is Correct In patients with a history of **two or more** prior spontaneous preterm births or second-trimester losses, a **History-Indicated Cerclage** (prophylactic) is recommended. This is typically performed between **12–14 weeks** of gestation, after confirming fetal viability and screening for chromosomal anomalies (e.g., NT scan). The goal is to provide mechanical support to a cervix weakened by prior surgical trauma (conization). ### Why Other Options are Incorrect * **Option A:** Ultrasound-indicated cerclage is reserved for women with a history of *one* prior preterm birth or those at risk who currently show cervical shortening (<25 mm). Since this patient has a high-risk history of *two* preterm births, waiting for ultrasound changes is inappropriate; she requires immediate prophylactic intervention. * **Option B:** Bed rest has not been proven to prevent preterm birth and increases the risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE) and bone demineralization. * **Option D:** Tocolysis is used to temporarily delay delivery in *acute* preterm labor (to allow for steroid administration); it has no role in the prophylactic management of cervical insufficiency. ### NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls * **Gold Standard Diagnosis:** History of painless cervical dilatation followed by second-trimester expulsion of the fetus. * **McDonald Cerclage:** A simple purse-string suture at the cervicovaginal junction (most common). * **Shirodkar Cerclage:** Submucosal dissection to place the suture higher at the internal os. * **Timing of Removal:** Cerclage is typically removed at **36–37 weeks** or if labor commences.

Q: Blastocyst implantation close to the internal os causes which of the following conditions?

Placenta previa. ### Explanation **1. Why Option A is Correct:** In a normal pregnancy, the blastocyst typically implants in the upper uterine segment (fundus). **Placenta previa** occurs when the blastocyst implants in the lower uterine segment, specifically near or over the **internal os** of the cervix. As the placenta develops in this low position, it may partially or completely cover the cervical opening, leading to the classic clinical presentation of painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester. **2. Why Other Options are Incorrect:** * **Options B & C (Placenta Percreta/Increta):** These refer to **Placenta Accreta Spectrum (PAS)**, which is defined by the *depth of invasion* into the uterine wall, not the location relative to the os. * *Increta:* Villi invade the myometrium. * *Percreta:* Villi penetrate through the serosa and may involve adjacent organs (e.g., bladder). * **Option D (Abruptio Placentae):** This is the premature separation of a *normally situated* placenta from the uterine wall before delivery. It is characterized by painful vaginal bleeding and uterine tenderness. **3. High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Risk Factors:** Previous C-section (strongest risk for both Previa and Accreta), multiparity, and advanced maternal age. * **Diagnosis:** Transvaginal Ultrasound (TVS) is the gold standard for locating the placenta. * **Management Contraindication:** **Digital vaginal examination** is strictly contraindicated in suspected placenta previa until the diagnosis is ruled out, as it can provoke torrential hemorrhage (the "Stallworthy's sign" may be seen on examination). * **Classification:** The latest FIGO classification simplifies previa into "Placenta Previa" (covering the os) and "Low-lying Placenta" (edge <2cm from the os).

Q: Which of the following is NOT a benefit of artificial rupture of membranes (ARM)?

Decreases the incidence of amnionitis. **Explanation:** Artificial Rupture of Membranes (ARM), or amniotomy, is a common obstetric procedure used to induce or augment labor. However, it is an invasive procedure that carries specific risks and benefits. **Why Option C is the correct answer:** ARM does **not** decrease the incidence of amnionitis; in fact, it **increases** the risk. Once the protective amniotic sac is ruptured, the barrier between the vaginal flora and the uterine cavity is lost. The risk of chorioamnionitis (amnionitis) increases proportionally with the duration of the "rupture-to-delivery" interval and the number of vaginal examinations performed post-rupture. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Option A:** In severe preeclampsia or eclampsia, ARM helps lower blood pressure. The sudden reduction in intrauterine volume leads to a decrease in uterine wall tension, which reflexively reduces systemic vascular resistance and blood pressure. * **Option B:** In cases of polyhydramnios (hydramnios), the excessive fluid causes maternal respiratory distress due to diaphragmatic splinting. Controlled ARM (slow release of fluid) reduces intrauterine pressure, providing immediate symptomatic relief to the mother. * **Option D:** By releasing endogenous prostaglandins and allowing the fetal head to apply direct pressure to the cervix, ARM often accelerates labor. This can prevent prolonged labor and "failure to progress," thereby potentially reducing the need for cesarean sections. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Prerequisite for ARM:** The fetal head must be well-engaged to prevent **cord prolapse** (the most common immediate complication). * **Indication:** ARM is the preferred method for inducing labor in a patient with a favorable Bishop score. * **Contraindication:** Do not perform ARM if the fetal head is high/floating or in cases of active genital herpes or HIV (to prevent vertical transmission).

Q: Which of the following statements is false regarding vasa previa?

Maternal mortality is around 80%.. **Explanation:** **Vasa Previa** is a rare but life-threatening obstetric emergency where fetal vessels, unsupported by the umbilical cord or placental tissue, run through the fetal membranes across the internal os of the cervix. **1. Why Option A is the correct (False) statement:** The statement that maternal mortality is around 80% is **false**. In vasa previa, the bleeding is entirely **fetal** in origin. Because the total blood volume of a fetus is very small, even a minor bleed (e.g., 100ml) can lead to rapid fetal exsanguination and death (fetal mortality is high, often >50-70% if undiagnosed). However, since there is no maternal blood loss, the **maternal mortality is negligible (0%)**. **2. Analysis of other options:** * **Option B:** It is commonly associated with **velamentous insertion of the umbilical cord** or a **succenturiate lobe** of the placenta, where vessels must travel through the membranes to reach the main placental mass. * **Option C:** By definition, these are unprotected fetal vessels lying over the internal os, **below the presenting part**, making them vulnerable to rupture during the rupture of membranes (ROM). * **Option D:** The **Apt test** (alkali denaturation test) is used to differentiate fetal hemoglobin (HbF) from maternal hemoglobin (HbA). Since the bleeding in vasa previa is fetal, the Apt test will be positive (the solution remains pink), making it a diagnostic tool. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Classic Triad:** Rupture of membranes + Painless vaginal bleeding + Fetal bradycardia/distress. * **Diagnosis:** Antenatally via **Transvaginal Color Doppler Ultrasound** (Gold Standard). * **Management:** If diagnosed prenatally, elective Cesarean section is planned at 34–36 weeks to avoid labor and ROM. If it occurs acutely during labor, immediate emergency Cesarean is mandatory.

Q: Fetal hypoxia and acidosis are suggested by the following EXCEPT?

Early deceleration. **Explanation:** The correct answer is **Early deceleration** because it is a benign finding and is not associated with fetal hypoxia or acidosis. **1. Why Early Deceleration is the correct answer:** Early decelerations are caused by **fetal head compression** during uterine contractions. This compression triggers a vagal reflex, leading to a transient slowing of the heart rate. The nadir (lowest point) of the deceleration coincides with the peak of the contraction (mirror image). Since it is a physiological response and not a result of decreased oxygenation, it is classified as a **Category I (Normal)** Fetal Heart Rate (FHR) pattern. **2. Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Late Deceleration:** Caused by **uteroplacental insufficiency**. The deceleration begins after the peak of the contraction. It indicates a disruption in oxygen transfer, strongly suggesting fetal hypoxia and potential acidosis. * **Variable Deceleration:** Caused by **umbilical cord compression**. While mild cases are common, recurrent or deep variable decelerations can lead to respiratory and metabolic acidosis. * **Prolonged Deceleration:** Defined as a drop in FHR lasting >2 minutes but <10 minutes. This is a critical sign of acute fetal distress (e.g., cord prolapse or placental abruption) and is highly associated with hypoxia. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **VEAL CHOP Mnemonic:** **V**ariable = **C**ord; **E**arly = **H**ead; **A**ccelerations = **O**kay; **L**ate = **P**lacental insufficiency. * **Sinusoidal Pattern:** The most ominous FHR pattern, often indicating severe fetal anemia (e.g., Rh isoimmunization) or severe hypoxia. * **Amniotic Fluid Index (AFI):** Normal range is 5–25 cm; <5 cm indicates oligohydramnios, which increases the risk of cord compression and variable decelerations.

Q: What is the incidence rate of breech presentation at term?

3%. **Explanation:** The incidence of breech presentation is inversely proportional to the gestational age. In early pregnancy, the fetus is small relative to the volume of amniotic fluid, allowing for frequent changes in position. As the fetus grows and the amniotic fluid volume decreases toward term, the fetus typically settles into the cephalic presentation, which is the most stable fit for the ovoid shape of the uterus. * **Correct Answer (B - 3%):** By **37 weeks (term)**, approximately **3–4%** of singletons are in a breech presentation. This is a high-yield statistic for NEET-PG, as it represents the baseline risk for malpresentation at the time of delivery. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A (1%):** This is too low for term pregnancies; however, it may represent the incidence of more rare malpresentations like transverse lie at term. * **C (7%):** This is the approximate incidence of breech presentation at **32 weeks** of gestation. As the pregnancy progresses from 32 to 37 weeks, many fetuses undergo spontaneous version to cephalic. * **D (10%):** This is the incidence of breech presentation at approximately **28 weeks** (late second/early third trimester). **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** 1. **Gestational Age Trend:** Incidence is ~25% at 28 weeks, ~7% at 32 weeks, and ~3% at term. 2. **Most Common Type:** **Frank breech** (buttocks presenting, legs extended at knees) is the most common type at term (60-70%). 3. **Risk Factors:** Prematurity (most common cause), uterine anomalies (septate/bicornuate), placenta previa, polyhydramnios, and fetal anomalies (e.g., hydrocephalus). 4. **Management:** External Cephalic Version (ECV) is typically offered at 36 weeks in primigravida and 37 weeks in multigravida to reduce the incidence of breech at delivery.

Q: Which of the following types of pelvis is associated with a lack of a single pelvic ala?

Naegele's pelvis. ### Explanation The question focuses on **contracted pelvises** resulting from bone diseases or developmental defects, a high-yield topic for NEET-PG. **1. Why Naegele’s Pelvis is Correct:** Naegele’s pelvis is characterized by the **congenital absence or rudimentary development of one sacral ala** (wing). This unilateral defect leads to an obliquely contracted pelvis. Because one side of the sacrum is missing, the sacroiliac joint on that side often undergoes synostosis (fusion), causing the pelvic inlet to become asymmetrical and narrow, which frequently necessitates a Cesarean section. **2. Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Robert’s Pelvis (Option A):** This is the **bilateral** version of Naegele’s pelvis. It involves the absence of **both** sacral alae, resulting in a transversely contracted pelvis. * **Rachitic Pelvis (Option C):** Caused by Vitamin D deficiency in childhood (Rickets). It typically results in a **flat pelvis** (increased transverse diameter but decreased anteroposterior diameter) due to the weight of the body pushing the sacral promontory forward. * **Osteomalacic Pelvis (Option D):** Caused by Vitamin D deficiency in adults. The bones become soft and pliable, leading to a **"Triradiate" or "Beaked" pelvis** as the acetabula are pushed inward by the femurs. **3. Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Naegele’s Pelvis:** Unilateral ala defect → Oblique contraction. * **Robert’s Pelvis:** Bilateral ala defect → Transverse contraction. * **Rachitic Pelvis:** Associated with a "Reniform" (kidney-shaped) inlet. * **Osteomalacic Pelvis:** Associated with a "Triradiate" inlet. * **Rule of Thumb:** If the question mentions "asymmetry" or "one side," think Naegele; if it mentions "symmetry" but "narrowing," think Robert’s.

Question 1

A primipara, three months postpartum, who experienced a prolonged and difficult vaginal delivery, presents with complaints of incontinence of loose stools and flatus since the day of delivery. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Complete perineal tear

Answer

Chronic diarrhoea

Answer

Recto-vaginal fistula

Answer

Haemorrhoids

Question 2

What is an indication for amnioinfusion?

Accepted Answer

In case of fetal distress

Answer

Oligohydramnios

Answer

Suspected renal anomalies

Answer

To facilitate labor

Question 3

A 33-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, aborta 0, presents at 9 weeks gestational age with a history of conization for CIN one year prior. She also has a history of preterm births at 30 and 32 weeks during her last two pregnancies. What is the best step in the management of this patient?

Accepted Answer

Cervical cerclage by 12 weeks

Answer

Ultrasound to assess cervical length and guide further management

Answer

Complete bed rest until viability is achieved

Answer

Low-dose tocolysis with salbutamol until viability is achieved

Question 4

Blastocyst implantation close to the internal os causes which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

Placenta previa

Answer

Placenta percreta

Answer

Placenta increta

Answer

Abruptio placentae

Question 5

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of artificial rupture of membranes (ARM)?

Accepted Answer

Decreases the incidence of amnionitis

Answer

Lowers blood pressure in preeclampsia

Answer

Relieves maternal distress in hydramnios

Answer

Reduces the need for cesarean section

Question 6

Which of the following statements is false regarding vasa previa?

Accepted Answer

Maternal mortality is around 80%.

Answer

It is seen in velamentous insertion of the placenta.

Answer

Unprotected blood vessels lie below the presenting part.

Answer

The Apt test is diagnostic.

Question 7

Fetal hypoxia and acidosis are suggested by the following EXCEPT?

Accepted Answer

Early deceleration

Answer

Late deceleration

Answer

Variable deceleration

Answer

Prolonged deceleration

Question 8

What is the incidence rate of breech presentation at term?

Accepted Answer

3%

Answer

1%

Answer

7%

Answer

10%

Question 9

Which of the following women is most likely to have a successful induction of labor?

Accepted Answer

Gravida 2 Para 1 with BMI = 27 and neonatal birth weight of 3100g.

Answer

Gravida 1 Para 0 with BMI = 32 and neonatal birth weight of 2500g.

Answer

Gravida 1 Para 0 with BMI of 24 and neonatal birth weight of 4000g.

Answer

Gravida 2 Para 1 with BMI of 32 and neonatal birth weight of 3200g.

Question 10

Which of the following types of pelvis is associated with a lack of a single pelvic ala?

Accepted Answer

Naegele's pelvis

Answer

Robe's pelvis

Answer

Rachitic pelvis

Answer

Osteomalacic pelvis

Labor and Delivery — MCQs

Labor and Delivery — MCQs

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